Practice Free SY0-701 Exam Online Questions
Question #81
A security analyst needs to propose a remediation plan ‘or each item in a risk register. The item with the highest priority requires employees to have separate logins for SaaS solutions and different password complexity requirements for each solution.
Which of the following implementation plans will most likely resolve this security issue?
- A . Creating a unified password complexity standard
- B . Integrating each SaaS solution with the Identity provider
- C . Securing access to each SaaS by using a single wildcard certificate
- D . Configuring geofencing on each SaaS solution
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Integrating each SaaS solution with an Identity Provider (IdP) is the most effective way to address the
security issue. This approach allows for Single Sign-On (SSO) capabilities, where users can access
multiple SaaS applications with a single set of credentials while maintaining strong password policies
across all services. It simplifies the user experience and ensures consistent security enforcement
across different SaaS platforms.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management.
B
Explanation:
Integrating each SaaS solution with an Identity Provider (IdP) is the most effective way to address the
security issue. This approach allows for Single Sign-On (SSO) capabilities, where users can access
multiple SaaS applications with a single set of credentials while maintaining strong password policies
across all services. It simplifies the user experience and ensures consistent security enforcement
across different SaaS platforms.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Identity and Access Management.
Question #82
Which of the following vulnerabilities is associated with installing software outside of a manufacturer’s approved software repository?
- A . Jailbreaking
- B . Memory injection
- C . Resource reuse
- D . Side loading
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Side loading is the process of installing software outside of a manufacturer’s approved software repository. This can expose the device to potential vulnerabilities, such as malware, spyware, or unauthorized access. Side loading can also bypass security controls and policies that are enforced by the manufacturer or the organization. Side loading is often done by users who want to access applications or features that are not available or allowed on their devices.
Reference: Sideloading – CompTIA Security + Video Training | Interface Technical Training, Security+ (Plus) Certification |
CompTIA IT Certifications, Load Balancers C CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 C 2.1, CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide.
D
Explanation:
Side loading is the process of installing software outside of a manufacturer’s approved software repository. This can expose the device to potential vulnerabilities, such as malware, spyware, or unauthorized access. Side loading can also bypass security controls and policies that are enforced by the manufacturer or the organization. Side loading is often done by users who want to access applications or features that are not available or allowed on their devices.
Reference: Sideloading – CompTIA Security + Video Training | Interface Technical Training, Security+ (Plus) Certification |
CompTIA IT Certifications, Load Balancers C CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 C 2.1, CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide.
Question #83
Which of the following would best explain why a security analyst is running daily vulnerability scans on all corporate endpoints?
- A . To track the status of patch installations
- B . To find shadow IT cloud deployments
- C . To continuously monitor hardware inventory
- D . To hunt for active attackers in the network
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Daily vulnerability scans help identify missing patches or updates across endpoints, allowing security teams to ensure compliance with patch management policies.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Vulnerability Management".
A
Explanation:
Daily vulnerability scans help identify missing patches or updates across endpoints, allowing security teams to ensure compliance with patch management policies.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Vulnerability Management".
Question #84
A client demands at least 99.99% uptime from a service provider’s hosted security services.
Which of the following documents includes the information the service provider should return to the client?
- A . MOA
- B . SOW
- C . MOU
- D . SLA
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A service level agreement (SLA) is a document that defines the level of service expected by a customer from a service provider, indicating the metrics by which that service is measured, and the remedies or penalties, if any, should the agreed-upon levels not be achieved. An SLA can specify the minimum uptime or availability of a service, such as 99.99%, and the consequences for failing to meet that standard. A memorandum of agreement (MOA), a statement of work (SOW), and a memorandum of understanding (MOU) are other types of documents that can be used to establish a relationship between parties, but they do not typically include the details of service levels and performance metrics that an SLA does.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17
D
Explanation:
A service level agreement (SLA) is a document that defines the level of service expected by a customer from a service provider, indicating the metrics by which that service is measured, and the remedies or penalties, if any, should the agreed-upon levels not be achieved. An SLA can specify the minimum uptime or availability of a service, such as 99.99%, and the consequences for failing to meet that standard. A memorandum of agreement (MOA), a statement of work (SOW), and a memorandum of understanding (MOU) are other types of documents that can be used to establish a relationship between parties, but they do not typically include the details of service levels and performance metrics that an SLA does.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17
Question #85
An analyst is reviewing an incident in which a user clicked on a link in a phishing email.
Which of the following log sources would the analyst utilize to determine whether the connection was successful?
- A . Network
- B . System
- C . Application
- D . Authentication
Correct Answer: D
Question #86
Which of the following is the most likely outcome if a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment?
- A . Fines
- B . Audit findings
- C . Sanctions
- D . Reputation damage
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
PCI DSS is the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard, which is a set of security requirements for organizations that store, process, or transmit cardholder data. PCI DSS aims to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of cardholder data and prevent fraud, identity theft, and data breaches. PCI DSS is enforced by the payment card brands, such as Visa, Mastercard, American Express, Discover, and JCB, and applies to all entities involved in the payment card ecosystem, such as merchants, acquirers, issuers, processors, service providers, and payment applications.
If a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment, the most likely outcome is that the bank will face fines from the payment card brands. An internal PCI DSS compliance assessment is a self-assessment that the bank performs to evaluate its own compliance with the PCI DSS requirements. The bank must submit the results of the internal assessment to the payment card brands or their designated agents, such as acquirers or qualified security assessors (QSAs). If the internal assessment reveals that the bank is not compliant with the PCI DSS requirements, the payment card brands may impose fines on the bank as a penalty for violating the PCI DSS contract. The amount and frequency of the fines may vary depending on the severity and duration of the non-compliance, the number and type of cardholder data compromised, and the level of cooperation and remediation from the bank. The fines can range from thousands to millions of dollars per month, and can increase over time if the non-compliance is not resolved.
The other options are not correct because they are not the most likely outcomes if a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment.
B. Audit findings. Audit findings are the results of an external PCI DSS compliance assessment that is performed by a QSA or an approved scanning vendor (ASV). An external assessment is required for certain entities that handle a large volume of cardholder data or have a history of non-compliance. An external assessment may also be triggered by a security incident or a request from the payment card brands. Audit findings may reveal the gaps and weaknesses in the bank’s security controls and recommend corrective actions to achieve compliance. However, audit findings are not the outcome of an internal assessment, which is performed by the bank itself.
C. Sanctions. Sanctions are the measures that the payment card brands may take against the bank if the bank fails to pay the fines or comply with the PCI DSS requirements. Sanctions may include increasing the fines, suspending or terminating the bank’s ability to accept or process payment cards, or revoking the bank’s PCI DSS certification. Sanctions are not the immediate outcome of an internal assessment, but rather the possible consequence of prolonged or repeated non-compliance.
D. Reputation damage. Reputation damage is the loss of trust and credibility that the bank may suffer from its customers, partners, regulators, and the public if the bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment. Reputation damage may affect the bank’s brand image, customer loyalty, market share, and profitability. Reputation damage is not a direct outcome of an internal assessment, but rather a potential risk that the bank may face if the non-compliance is exposed or exploited by malicious actors.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 388. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: PCI DSS (5:12). PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS Quick Reference Guide, page 4. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 8. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 9. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 10. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 11. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 12. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 13. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 14. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 15. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 16. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 17. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 18. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 19. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 20. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 21. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 22. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 23. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 24. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 25. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 26. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 27. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 28. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 29. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 30. [PCI Security Standards Council]
A
Explanation:
PCI DSS is the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard, which is a set of security requirements for organizations that store, process, or transmit cardholder data. PCI DSS aims to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of cardholder data and prevent fraud, identity theft, and data breaches. PCI DSS is enforced by the payment card brands, such as Visa, Mastercard, American Express, Discover, and JCB, and applies to all entities involved in the payment card ecosystem, such as merchants, acquirers, issuers, processors, service providers, and payment applications.
If a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment, the most likely outcome is that the bank will face fines from the payment card brands. An internal PCI DSS compliance assessment is a self-assessment that the bank performs to evaluate its own compliance with the PCI DSS requirements. The bank must submit the results of the internal assessment to the payment card brands or their designated agents, such as acquirers or qualified security assessors (QSAs). If the internal assessment reveals that the bank is not compliant with the PCI DSS requirements, the payment card brands may impose fines on the bank as a penalty for violating the PCI DSS contract. The amount and frequency of the fines may vary depending on the severity and duration of the non-compliance, the number and type of cardholder data compromised, and the level of cooperation and remediation from the bank. The fines can range from thousands to millions of dollars per month, and can increase over time if the non-compliance is not resolved.
The other options are not correct because they are not the most likely outcomes if a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment.
B. Audit findings. Audit findings are the results of an external PCI DSS compliance assessment that is performed by a QSA or an approved scanning vendor (ASV). An external assessment is required for certain entities that handle a large volume of cardholder data or have a history of non-compliance. An external assessment may also be triggered by a security incident or a request from the payment card brands. Audit findings may reveal the gaps and weaknesses in the bank’s security controls and recommend corrective actions to achieve compliance. However, audit findings are not the outcome of an internal assessment, which is performed by the bank itself.
C. Sanctions. Sanctions are the measures that the payment card brands may take against the bank if the bank fails to pay the fines or comply with the PCI DSS requirements. Sanctions may include increasing the fines, suspending or terminating the bank’s ability to accept or process payment cards, or revoking the bank’s PCI DSS certification. Sanctions are not the immediate outcome of an internal assessment, but rather the possible consequence of prolonged or repeated non-compliance.
D. Reputation damage. Reputation damage is the loss of trust and credibility that the bank may suffer from its customers, partners, regulators, and the public if the bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment. Reputation damage may affect the bank’s brand image, customer loyalty, market share, and profitability. Reputation damage is not a direct outcome of an internal assessment, but rather a potential risk that the bank may face if the non-compliance is exposed or exploited by malicious actors.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 388. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: PCI DSS (5:12). PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS Quick Reference Guide, page 4. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 8. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 9. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 10. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 11. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 12. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 13. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 14. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 15. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 16. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 17. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 18. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 19. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 20. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 21. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 22. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 23. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 24. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 25. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 26. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 27. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 28. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 29. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 30. [PCI Security Standards Council]
Question #87
A security analyst receives alerts about an internal system sending a large amount of unusual DNS queries to systems on the internet over short periods of time during non-business hours.
Which of the following is most likely occurring?
- A . A worm is propagating across the network.
- B . Data is being exfiltrated.
- C . A logic bomb is deleting data.
- D . Ransomware is encrypting files.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Data exfiltration is a technique that attackers use to steal sensitive data from a target system or network by transmitting it through DNS queries and responses. This method is often used in advanced persistent threat (APT) attacks, in which attackers seek to persistently evade detection in the target environment. A large amount of unusual DNS queries to systems on the internet over short periods of time during non-business hours is a strong indicator of data exfiltration. A worm, a logic bomb, and ransomware would not use DNS queries to communicate with their command and control servers or perform their malicious actions.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 487; Introduction to DNS Data Exfiltration; Identifying a DNS Exfiltration Attack That Wasn’t Real ― This Time
B
Explanation:
Data exfiltration is a technique that attackers use to steal sensitive data from a target system or network by transmitting it through DNS queries and responses. This method is often used in advanced persistent threat (APT) attacks, in which attackers seek to persistently evade detection in the target environment. A large amount of unusual DNS queries to systems on the internet over short periods of time during non-business hours is a strong indicator of data exfiltration. A worm, a logic bomb, and ransomware would not use DNS queries to communicate with their command and control servers or perform their malicious actions.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 487; Introduction to DNS Data Exfiltration; Identifying a DNS Exfiltration Attack That Wasn’t Real ― This Time
Question #88
A spoofed identity was detected for a digital certificate.
Which of the following are the type of unidentified key and the certificate mat could be in use on the company domain?
- A . Private key and root certificate
- B . Public key and expired certificate
- C . Private key and self-signed certificate
- D . Public key and wildcard certificate
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A self-signed certificate is a certificate that is signed by its own private key rather than by a trusted certificate authority (CA). This means that the authenticity of the certificate relies solely on the issuer’s own authority. If a spoofed identity was detected, it could indicate that a private key associated with a self-signed certificate was compromised. Self-signed certificates are often used internally within organizations, but they carry higher risks since they are not validated by a third-party CA, making them more susceptible to spoofing.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly the domains discussing Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) and certificate management.
C
Explanation:
A self-signed certificate is a certificate that is signed by its own private key rather than by a trusted certificate authority (CA). This means that the authenticity of the certificate relies solely on the issuer’s own authority. If a spoofed identity was detected, it could indicate that a private key associated with a self-signed certificate was compromised. Self-signed certificates are often used internally within organizations, but they carry higher risks since they are not validated by a third-party CA, making them more susceptible to spoofing.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly the domains discussing Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) and certificate management.
Question #89
A security engineer is working to address the growing risks that shadow IT services are introducing to the organization. The organization has taken a cloud-first approach end does not have an on-premises IT infrastructure.
Which of the following would best secure the organization?
- A . Upgrading to a next-generation firewall
- B . Deploying an appropriate in-line CASB solution
- C . Conducting user training on software policies
- D . Configuring double key encryption in SaaS platforms
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) solution is the most suitable option for securing an organization that has adopted a cloud-first strategy and does not have an on-premises IT infrastructure. CASBs provide visibility and control over shadow IT services, enforce security policies, and protect data across cloud services.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of cloud security and managing risks associated with shadow IT.
B
Explanation:
A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) solution is the most suitable option for securing an organization that has adopted a cloud-first strategy and does not have an on-premises IT infrastructure. CASBs provide visibility and control over shadow IT services, enforce security policies, and protect data across cloud services.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of cloud security and managing risks associated with shadow IT.
Question #90
Which of the following describes the procedures a penetration tester must follow while conducting a test?
- A . Rules of engagement
- B . Rules of acceptance
- C . Rules of understanding
- D . Rules of execution
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Rules of engagement specify the agreed-upon boundaries, scope, and procedures for a penetration test to ensure compliance and avoid disruption to the environment.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Penetration Testing Procedures".
A
Explanation:
Rules of engagement specify the agreed-upon boundaries, scope, and procedures for a penetration test to ensure compliance and avoid disruption to the environment.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Penetration Testing Procedures".