Practice Free SY0-701 Exam Online Questions
Question #31
An analyst is reviewing an incident in which a user clicked on a link in a phishing email.
Which of the following log sources would the analyst utilize to determine whether the connection was successful?
- A . Network
- B . System
- C . Application
- D . Authentication
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
To determine whether the connection was successful after a user clicked on a link in a phishing email, the most relevant log source to analyze would be the network logs. These logs would provide information on outbound and inbound traffic, allowing the analyst to see if the user’s system connected to the remote server specified in the phishing link. Network logs can include details such as IP addresses, domains accessed, and the success or failure of connections, which are crucial for understanding the impact of the phishing attempt.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Incident Response.
A
Explanation:
To determine whether the connection was successful after a user clicked on a link in a phishing email, the most relevant log source to analyze would be the network logs. These logs would provide information on outbound and inbound traffic, allowing the analyst to see if the user’s system connected to the remote server specified in the phishing link. Network logs can include details such as IP addresses, domains accessed, and the success or failure of connections, which are crucial for understanding the impact of the phishing attempt.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Incident Response.
Question #32
A security practitioner completes a vulnerability assessment on a company’s network and finds several vulnerabilities, which the operations team remediates.
Which of the following should be done next?
- A . Conduct an audit.
- B . Initiate a penetration test.
- C . Rescan the network.
- D . Submit a report.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
After completing a vulnerability assessment and remediating the identified vulnerabilities, the next step is to rescan the network to verify that the vulnerabilities have been successfully fixed and no new vulnerabilities have been introduced. A vulnerability assessment is a process of identifying and evaluating the weaknesses and exposures in a network, system, or application that could be exploited by attackers. A vulnerability assessment typically involves using automated tools, such as scanners, to scan the network and generate a report of the findings. The report may include information such as the severity, impact, and remediation of the vulnerabilities. The operations team is responsible for applying the appropriate patches, updates, or configurations to address the vulnerabilities and reduce the risk to the network. A rescan is necessary to confirm that the remediation actions have been effective and that the network is secure.
Conducting an audit, initiating a penetration test, or submitting a report are not the next steps after completing a vulnerability assessment and remediating the vulnerabilities. An audit is a process of reviewing and verifying the compliance of the network with the established policies, standards, and regulations. An audit may be performed by internal or external auditors, and it may use the results of the vulnerability assessment as part of the evidence. However, an audit is not a mandatory step after a vulnerability assessment, and it does not validate the effectiveness of the remediation actions.
A penetration test is a process of simulating a real-world attack on the network to test the security defenses and identify any gaps or weaknesses. A penetration test may use the results of the vulnerability assessment as a starting point, but it goes beyond scanning and involves exploiting the vulnerabilities to gain access or cause damage. A penetration test may be performed after a vulnerability assessment, but only with the proper authorization, scope, and rules of engagement. A penetration test is not a substitute for a rescan, as it does not verify that the vulnerabilities have been fixed.
Submitting a report is a step that is done after the vulnerability assessment, but before the remediation. The report is a document that summarizes the findings and recommendations of the vulnerability assessment, and it is used to communicate the results to the stakeholders and the operations team. The report may also include a follow-up plan and a timeline for the remediation actions. However, submitting a report is not the final step after the remediation, as it does not confirm that the network is secure.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 372-375; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 4.1 – Vulnerability Scanning, 0:00 – 8:00.
C
Explanation:
After completing a vulnerability assessment and remediating the identified vulnerabilities, the next step is to rescan the network to verify that the vulnerabilities have been successfully fixed and no new vulnerabilities have been introduced. A vulnerability assessment is a process of identifying and evaluating the weaknesses and exposures in a network, system, or application that could be exploited by attackers. A vulnerability assessment typically involves using automated tools, such as scanners, to scan the network and generate a report of the findings. The report may include information such as the severity, impact, and remediation of the vulnerabilities. The operations team is responsible for applying the appropriate patches, updates, or configurations to address the vulnerabilities and reduce the risk to the network. A rescan is necessary to confirm that the remediation actions have been effective and that the network is secure.
Conducting an audit, initiating a penetration test, or submitting a report are not the next steps after completing a vulnerability assessment and remediating the vulnerabilities. An audit is a process of reviewing and verifying the compliance of the network with the established policies, standards, and regulations. An audit may be performed by internal or external auditors, and it may use the results of the vulnerability assessment as part of the evidence. However, an audit is not a mandatory step after a vulnerability assessment, and it does not validate the effectiveness of the remediation actions.
A penetration test is a process of simulating a real-world attack on the network to test the security defenses and identify any gaps or weaknesses. A penetration test may use the results of the vulnerability assessment as a starting point, but it goes beyond scanning and involves exploiting the vulnerabilities to gain access or cause damage. A penetration test may be performed after a vulnerability assessment, but only with the proper authorization, scope, and rules of engagement. A penetration test is not a substitute for a rescan, as it does not verify that the vulnerabilities have been fixed.
Submitting a report is a step that is done after the vulnerability assessment, but before the remediation. The report is a document that summarizes the findings and recommendations of the vulnerability assessment, and it is used to communicate the results to the stakeholders and the operations team. The report may also include a follow-up plan and a timeline for the remediation actions. However, submitting a report is not the final step after the remediation, as it does not confirm that the network is secure.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 372-375; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 4.1 – Vulnerability Scanning, 0:00 – 8:00.
Question #33
Which of the following is the final step of the modem response process?
- A . Lessons learned
- B . Eradication
- C . Containment
- D . Recovery
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The final step in the incident response process is "Lessons learned." This step involves reviewing and analyzing the incident to understand what happened, how it was handled, and what could be improved. The goal is to improve future response efforts and prevent similar incidents from occurring. It’s essential for refining the incident response plan and enhancing overall security posture.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of incident response and recovery.
A
Explanation:
The final step in the incident response process is "Lessons learned." This step involves reviewing and analyzing the incident to understand what happened, how it was handled, and what could be improved. The goal is to improve future response efforts and prevent similar incidents from occurring. It’s essential for refining the incident response plan and enhancing overall security posture.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of incident response and recovery.
Question #34
An analyst is evaluating the implementation of Zero Trust principles within the data plane.
Which of the following would be most relevant for the analyst to evaluate?
- A . Secured zones
- B . Subject role
- C . Adaptive identity
- D . Threat scope reduction
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The data plane, also known as the forwarding plane, is the part of the network that carries user traffic and data. It is responsible for moving packets from one device to another based on the routing and switching decisions made by the control plane. The data plane is a critical component of the Zero Trust architecture, as it is where most of the attacks and breaches occur. Therefore, implementing Zero Trust principles within the data plane can help to improve the security and resilience of the network.
One of the key principles of Zero Trust is to assume breach and minimize the blast radius and segment access. This means that the network should be divided into smaller and isolated segments or zones, each with its own security policies and controls. This way, if one segment is compromised, the attacker cannot easily move laterally to other segments and access more resources or data. This principle is also known as threat scope reduction, as it reduces the scope and impact of a potential threat.
The other options are not as relevant for the data plane as threat scope reduction. Secured zones are a concept related to the control plane, which is the part of the network that makes routing and switching decisions. Subject role is a concept related to the identity plane, which is the part of the network that authenticates and authorizes users and devices. Adaptive identity is a concept related to the policy plane, which is the part of the network that defines and enforces the security policies and rules.
Reference https://bing.com/search?qZero+Trust+data+plane
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/security/zero-trust/deploy/data
D
Explanation:
The data plane, also known as the forwarding plane, is the part of the network that carries user traffic and data. It is responsible for moving packets from one device to another based on the routing and switching decisions made by the control plane. The data plane is a critical component of the Zero Trust architecture, as it is where most of the attacks and breaches occur. Therefore, implementing Zero Trust principles within the data plane can help to improve the security and resilience of the network.
One of the key principles of Zero Trust is to assume breach and minimize the blast radius and segment access. This means that the network should be divided into smaller and isolated segments or zones, each with its own security policies and controls. This way, if one segment is compromised, the attacker cannot easily move laterally to other segments and access more resources or data. This principle is also known as threat scope reduction, as it reduces the scope and impact of a potential threat.
The other options are not as relevant for the data plane as threat scope reduction. Secured zones are a concept related to the control plane, which is the part of the network that makes routing and switching decisions. Subject role is a concept related to the identity plane, which is the part of the network that authenticates and authorizes users and devices. Adaptive identity is a concept related to the policy plane, which is the part of the network that defines and enforces the security policies and rules.
Reference https://bing.com/search?qZero+Trust+data+plane
https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/security/zero-trust/deploy/data
Question #35
A network administrator deployed a DNS logging tool that togs suspicious websites that are visited and then sends a daily report based on various weighted metrics.
Which of the following best describes the type of control the administrator put in place?
- A . Preventive
- B . Deterrent
- C . Corrective
- D . Detective
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The DNS logging tool deployed by the network administrator is designed to monitor and log suspicious websites that users visit and generate daily reports. This functionality is best categorized as a detective control, which focuses on identifying and recording suspicious or unauthorized activities to facilitate further analysis and response.
Characteristics of a Detective Control:
It does not actively stop activities (as a preventive control would).
It identifies suspicious behavior after it has occurred.
It helps in detecting patterns or potential security issues for future mitigation.
Why not the other options?
D
Explanation:
The DNS logging tool deployed by the network administrator is designed to monitor and log suspicious websites that users visit and generate daily reports. This functionality is best categorized as a detective control, which focuses on identifying and recording suspicious or unauthorized activities to facilitate further analysis and response.
Characteristics of a Detective Control:
It does not actively stop activities (as a preventive control would).
It identifies suspicious behavior after it has occurred.
It helps in detecting patterns or potential security issues for future mitigation.
Why not the other options?
Question #36
A security analyst reviews domain activity logs and notices the following:
Which of the following is the best explanation for what the security analyst has discovered?
- A . The user jsmith’s account has been locked out.
- B . A keylogger is installed on [smith’s workstation
- C . An attacker is attempting to brute force ismith’s account.
- D . Ransomware has been deployed in the domain.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Brute force is a type of attack that tries to guess the password or other credentials of a user account by using a large number of possible combinations. An attacker can use automated tools or scripts to perform a brute force attack and gain unauthorized access to the account. The domain activity logs show that the user ismith has failed to log in 10 times in a row within a short period of time, which is a strong indicator of a brute force attack. The logs also show that the source IP address of the failed logins is different from the usual IP address of ismith, which suggests that the attacker is using a different device or location to launch the attack. The security analyst should take immediate action to block the attacker’s IP address, reset ismith’s password, and notify ismith of the incident.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page 2. Threat Actors and Attributes C SY0-601 CompTIA Security+: 1.1
C
Explanation:
Brute force is a type of attack that tries to guess the password or other credentials of a user account by using a large number of possible combinations. An attacker can use automated tools or scripts to perform a brute force attack and gain unauthorized access to the account. The domain activity logs show that the user ismith has failed to log in 10 times in a row within a short period of time, which is a strong indicator of a brute force attack. The logs also show that the source IP address of the failed logins is different from the usual IP address of ismith, which suggests that the attacker is using a different device or location to launch the attack. The security analyst should take immediate action to block the attacker’s IP address, reset ismith’s password, and notify ismith of the incident.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.1, page 2. Threat Actors and Attributes C SY0-601 CompTIA Security+: 1.1
Question #37
An organization wants to limit potential impact to its log-in database in the event of a breach.
Which of the following options is the security team most likely to recommend?
- A . Tokenization
- B . Hashing
- C . Obfuscation
- D . Segmentation
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
To limit the potential impact on the log-in database in case of a breach, the security team would most likely recommend hashing. Hashing converts passwords into fixed-length strings of characters, which cannot be easily reversed to reveal the original passwords. Even if the database is breached, attackers cannot easily retrieve the actual passwords if they are properly hashed (especially with techniques like salting).
Tokenization is used to replace sensitive data with a token, but it is more common for protecting credit card data than passwords.
Obfuscation is the process of making data harder to interpret but is weaker than hashing for password protection.
Segmentation helps isolate data but doesn’t directly protect the contents of the login database.
B
Explanation:
To limit the potential impact on the log-in database in case of a breach, the security team would most likely recommend hashing. Hashing converts passwords into fixed-length strings of characters, which cannot be easily reversed to reveal the original passwords. Even if the database is breached, attackers cannot easily retrieve the actual passwords if they are properly hashed (especially with techniques like salting).
Tokenization is used to replace sensitive data with a token, but it is more common for protecting credit card data than passwords.
Obfuscation is the process of making data harder to interpret but is weaker than hashing for password protection.
Segmentation helps isolate data but doesn’t directly protect the contents of the login database.
Question #38
Which of the following examples would be best mitigated by input sanitization?
- A . <script>alert ("Warning!") ,-</script>
- B . nmap – 10.11.1.130
- C . Email message: "Click this link to get your free gift card."
- D . Browser message: "Your connection is not private."
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
This example of a script injection attack would be best mitigated by input sanitization. Input sanitization involves cleaning or filtering user inputs to ensure that they do not contain harmful data, such as malicious scripts. This prevents attackers from executing script-based attacks (e.g., Cross-Site Scripting or XSS).
Nmap command is unrelated to input sanitization, as it is a network scanning tool.
Email phishing attempts require different mitigations, such as user training.
Browser warnings about insecure connections involve encryption protocols, not input validation
A
Explanation:
This example of a script injection attack would be best mitigated by input sanitization. Input sanitization involves cleaning or filtering user inputs to ensure that they do not contain harmful data, such as malicious scripts. This prevents attackers from executing script-based attacks (e.g., Cross-Site Scripting or XSS).
Nmap command is unrelated to input sanitization, as it is a network scanning tool.
Email phishing attempts require different mitigations, such as user training.
Browser warnings about insecure connections involve encryption protocols, not input validation
Question #39
A security manager is implementing MFA and patch management.
Which of the following would best describe the control type and category? (Select two).
- A . Physical
- B . Managerial
- C . Detective
- D . Administrator
- E . Preventative
- F . Technical
Correct Answer: E, F
Question #40
A business uses Wi-Fi with content filleting enabled. An employee noticed a coworker accessed a blocked sue from a work computer and repotted the issue. While Investigating the issue, a security administrator found another device providing internet access to certain employees.
Which of the following best describes the security risk?
- A . The host-based security agent Is not running on all computers.
- B . A rogue access point Is allowing users to bypass controls.
- C . Employees who have certain credentials are using a hidden SSID.
- D . A valid access point is being jammed to limit availability.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The presence of another device providing internet access that bypasses the content filtering system indicates the existence of a rogue access point. Rogue access points are unauthorized devices that can create a backdoor into the network, allowing users to bypass security controls like content filtering. This presents a significant security risk as it can expose the network to unauthorized access and potential data breaches.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Rogue access points are highlighted as a major security risk, allowing unauthorized access to the network and bypassing security measures.
B
Explanation:
The presence of another device providing internet access that bypasses the content filtering system indicates the existence of a rogue access point. Rogue access points are unauthorized devices that can create a backdoor into the network, allowing users to bypass security controls like content filtering. This presents a significant security risk as it can expose the network to unauthorized access and potential data breaches.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Rogue access points are highlighted as a major security risk, allowing unauthorized access to the network and bypassing security measures.