Practice Free SY0-701 Exam Online Questions
Which of the following is an example of a data protection strategy that uses tokenization?
- A . Encrypting databases containing sensitive data
- B . Replacing sensitive data with surrogate values
- C . Removing sensitive data from production systems
- D . Hashing sensitive data in critical systems
B
Explanation:
Tokenization replaces sensitive data with non-sensitive surrogate values that retain the necessary format but are meaningless without access to the original data.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "Data Masking and Tokenization".
A security administrator would like to protect data on employees’ laptops.
Which of the following encryption techniques should the security administrator use?
- A . Partition
- B . Asymmetric
- C . Full disk
- D . Database
C
Explanation:
Full disk encryption (FDE) is a technique that encrypts all the data on a hard drive, including the operating system, applications, and files. FDE protects the data from unauthorized access in case the laptop is lost, stolen, or disposed of without proper sanitization. FDE requires the user to enter a password, a PIN, a smart card, or a biometric factor to unlock the drive and boot the system. FDE can be implemented by using software solutions, such as BitLocker, FileVault, or VeraCrypt, or by using hardware solutions, such as self-encrypting drives (SEDs) or Trusted Platform Modules (TPMs). FDE is a recommended encryption technique for laptops and other mobile devices that store sensitive data. Partition encryption is a technique that encrypts only a specific partition or volume on a hard drive, leaving the rest of the drive unencrypted. Partition encryption is less secure than FDE, as it does not protect the entire drive and may leave traces of data on unencrypted areas. Partition encryption is also less convenient than FDE, as it requires the user to mount and unmount the encrypted partition manually.
Asymmetric encryption is a technique that uses a pair of keys, one public and one private, to encrypt and decrypt data. Asymmetric encryption is mainly used for securing communication, such as email, web, or VPN, rather than for encrypting data at rest. Asymmetric encryption is also slower and more computationally intensive than symmetric encryption, which is the type of encryption used by FDE and partition encryption.
Database encryption is a technique that encrypts data stored in a database, such as tables, columns, rows, or cells. Database encryption can be done at the application level, the database level, or the file system level. Database encryption is useful for protecting data from unauthorized access by database administrators, hackers, or malware, but it does not protect the data from physical theft or loss of the device that hosts the database.
Reference: Data Encryption C CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 4.4, CompTIA Security+ Cheat Sheet and PDF | Zero To Mastery, CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Course – Cybr, Application Hardening C SY0-601 CompTIA Security+: 3.2.
Which of the following can a security director use to prioritize vulnerability patching within a company’s IT environment?
- A . SOAR
- B . CVSS
- C . SIEM
- D . CVE
B
Explanation:
The Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is a standardized framework for assessing the severity of security vulnerabilities. It helps organizations prioritize vulnerability patching by providing a numerical score that reflects the potential impact and exploitability of a vulnerability. CVSS scores are used to gauge the urgency of patching vulnerabilities within a company’s IT environment.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 05 Security Program Management and Oversight.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Vulnerability Management.
While investigating a recent security breach an analyst finds that an attacker gained access by SOL infection through a company website.
Which of the following should the analyst recommend to the website developers to prevent this from reoccurring?
- A . Secure cookies
- B . Input sanitization
- C . Code signing
- D . Blocklist
Which of the following best describe a penetration test that resembles an actual external attach?
- A . Known environment
- B . Partially known environment
- C . Bug bounty
- D . Unknown environment
D
Explanation:
An unknown environment in penetration testing, also known as a black-box test, simulates an actual external attack where the tester has no prior knowledge of the system. This type of penetration test is designed to mimic real-world attack scenarios, where an attacker has little to no information about the target environment. The tester must rely on various reconnaissance and attack techniques to
uncover vulnerabilities, much like a real-world attacker would. This approach helps organizations understand their security posture from an external perspective, providing insights into how their defenses would hold up against a true outsider threat.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: The course highlights the importance of understanding different penetration testing environments, including black-box testing, which aligns with the "unknown environment" in the provided answer.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: The guide details penetration testing methodologies, including black-box testing, which is crucial for simulating real external attacks.
After a recent vulnerability scan, a security engineer needs to harden the routers within the corporate network.
Which of the following is the most appropriate to disable?
- A . Console access
- B . Routing protocols
- C . VLANs
- D . Web-based administration
D
Explanation:
Web-based administration is a feature that allows users to configure and manage routers through a web browser interface. While this feature can provide convenience and ease of use, it can also pose a security risk, especially if the web interface is exposed to the internet or uses weak authentication or encryption methods. Web-based administration can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access to the router’s settings, firmware, or data, or to launch attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS) or cross-site request forgery (CSRF). Therefore, disabling web-based administration is a good practice to harden the routers within the corporate network. Console access, routing protocols, and VLANs are other features that can be configured on routers, but they are not the most appropriate to disable for hardening purposes. Console access is a physical connection to the router that requires direct access to the device, which can be secured by locking the router in a cabinet or using a strong password. Routing protocols are essential for routers to exchange routing information and maintain network connectivity, and they can be secured by using authentication or encryption mechanisms. VLANs are logical segments of a network that can enhance network performance and security by isolating traffic and devices, and they can be secured by using VLAN access control lists (VACLs) or private VLANs (PVLANs).
Reference: CCNA SEC: Router Hardening Your Router’s Security
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