Practice Free SY0-701 Exam Online Questions
Which of the following most accurately describes the order in which a security engineer should implement secure baselines?
- A . Deploy, maintain, establish
- B . Establish, maintain, deploy
- C . Establish, deploy, maintain
- D . Deploy, establish, maintain
C
Explanation:
The correct sequence is to first establish secure baselines by determining the required configurations, deploy those configurations across systems, and finally maintain the configurations through regular updates and auditing.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 4: Security Operations, Section: "Secure Baseline Development".
A new vulnerability enables a type of malware that allows the unauthorized movement of data from a system.
Which of the following would detect this behavior?
- A . Implementing encryption
- B . Monitoring outbound traffic
- C . Using default settings
- D . Closing all open ports
Which of the following is a hardware-specific vulnerability?
- A . Firmware version
- B . Buffer overflow
- C . SQL injection
- D . Cross-site scripting
A
Explanation:
Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in a hardware device, such as a router, a printer, or a BIOS chip. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and it can be updated or modified by the manufacturer or the user. Firmware version is a hardware-specific vulnerability, as it can expose the device to security risks if it is outdated, corrupted, or tampered with. An attacker can exploit firmware vulnerabilities to gain unauthorized access, modify device settings, install malware, or cause damage to the device or the network. Therefore, it is important to keep firmware updated and verify its integrity and authenticity.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 67. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.1, page 10.
Sine© a recent upgrade (o a WLAN infrastructure, several mobile users have been unable to access the internet from the lobby. The networking team performs a heat map survey of the building and finds several WAPs in the area. The WAPs are using similar frequencies with high power settings.
Which of the following installation considerations should the security team evaluate next?
- A . Channel overlap
- B . Encryption type
- C . New WLAN deployment
- D . WAP placement
A
Explanation:
When multiple Wireless Access Points (WAPs) are using similar frequencies with high power settings, it can cause channel overlap, leading to interference and connectivity issues. This is likely the reason why mobile users are unable to access the internet in the lobby. Evaluating and adjusting the channel settings on the WAPs to avoid overlap is crucial to resolving the connectivity problems.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly the domain on Wireless and Mobile Security, which covers WLAN deployment considerations.
A company wants to improve the availability of its application with a solution that requires minimal effort in the event a server needs to be replaced or added.
Which of the following would be the best solution to meet these objectives?
- A . Load balancing
- B . Fault tolerance
- C . Proxy servers
- D . Replication
A
Explanation:
Load balancing improves application availability by distributing traffic across multiple servers. If one server fails, traffic is automatically routed to other available servers with minimal intervention.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 3: Security Architecture, Section: "High Availability Solutions".
While conducting a business continuity tabletop exercise, the security team becomes concerned by potential impacts if a generator fails during failover.
Which of the following is the team most likely to consider in regard to risk management activities?
- A . RPO
- B . ARO
- C . BIA
- D . MTTR
D
Explanation:
Mean Time to Repair (MTTR) is a key metric in risk management, reflecting the time required to repair a failed component, such as a generator, and restore operations.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Study Guide, Domain 5: Security Program Management, Section: "Business Continuity Metrics".
One of a company’s vendors sent an analyst a security bulletin that recommends a BIOS update.
Which of the following vulnerability types is being addressed by the patch?
- A . Virtualization
- B . Firmware
- C . Application
- D . Operating system
B
Explanation:
Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in hardware devices, such as BIOS, routers, printers, or cameras. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and can be updated or patched to fix bugs, improve performance, or enhance security. Firmware vulnerabilities are flaws or weaknesses in the firmware code that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, modify settings, or cause damage to the device or the network. A BIOS update is a patch that addresses a firmware vulnerability in the basic input/output system of a computer, which is responsible for booting the operating system and managing the communication between the hardware and the software. The other options are not types of vulnerabilities, but rather categories of software or technology.
One of a company’s vendors sent an analyst a security bulletin that recommends a BIOS update.
Which of the following vulnerability types is being addressed by the patch?
- A . Virtualization
- B . Firmware
- C . Application
- D . Operating system
B
Explanation:
Firmware is a type of software that is embedded in hardware devices, such as BIOS, routers, printers, or cameras. Firmware controls the basic functions and operations of the device, and can be updated or patched to fix bugs, improve performance, or enhance security. Firmware vulnerabilities are flaws or weaknesses in the firmware code that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, modify settings, or cause damage to the device or the network. A BIOS update is a patch that addresses a firmware vulnerability in the basic input/output system of a computer, which is responsible for booting the operating system and managing the communication between the hardware and the software. The other options are not types of vulnerabilities, but rather categories of software or technology.
Which of the following teams combines both offensive and defensive testing techniques to protect an organization’s critical systems?
- A . Red
- B . Blue
- C . Purple
- D . Yellow
C
Explanation:
Purple is the team that combines both offensive and defensive testing techniques to protect an organization’s critical systems. Purple is not a separate team, but rather a collaboration between the red team and the blue team. The red team is the offensive team that simulates attacks and exploits vulnerabilities in the organization’s systems. The blue team is the defensive team that monitors and protects the organization’s systems from real and simulated threats. The purple team exists to ensure and maximize the effectiveness of the red and blue teams by integrating the defensive tactics and controls from the blue team with the threats and vulnerabilities found by the red team into a single narrative that improves the overall security posture of the organization. Red, blue, and yellow are other types of teams involved in security testing, but they do not combine both offensive and defensive techniques. The yellow team is the team that builds software solutions, scripts, and other programs that the blue team uses in the security testing.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 1331; Penetration Testing: Understanding Red, Blue, & Purple Teams3
A security analyst locates a potentially malicious video file on a server and needs to identify both the creation date and the file’s creator.
Which of the following actions would most likely give the security analyst the information required?
- A . Obtain the file’s SHA-256 hash.
- B . Use hexdump on the file’s contents.
- C . Check endpoint logs.
- D . Query the file’s metadata.
D
Explanation:
Metadata is data that describes other data, such as its format, origin, creation date, author, and other attributes. Video files, like other types of files, can contain metadata that can provide useful information for forensic analysis. For example, metadata can reveal the camera model, location, date and time, and software used to create or edit the video file. To query the file’s metadata, a security analyst can use various tools, such as MediaInfo1, ffprobe2, or hexdump3, to extract and display the metadata from the video file. By querying the file’s metadata, the security analyst can most likely identify both the creation date and the file’s creator, as well as other relevant information. Obtaining the file’s SHA-256 hash, checking endpoint logs, or using hexdump on the file’s contents are other possible actions, but they are not the most appropriate to answer the question. The file’s SHA-256 hash is a cryptographic value that can be used to verify the integrity or uniqueness of the file, but it does not reveal any information about the file’s creation date or creator. Checking endpoint logs can provide some clues about the file’s origin or activity, but it may not be reliable or accurate, especially if the logs are tampered with or incomplete. Using hexdump on the file’s contents can show the raw binary data of the file, but it may not be easy or feasible to interpret the metadata from the hex output, especially if the file is large or encrypted.
Reference: 1: How do I get the meta-data of a video file? 2: How to check if an mp4 file contains malware? 3: [Hexdump – Wikipedia]