Practice Free SY0-701 Exam Online Questions
Question #1
An administrator discovers that some files on a database server were recently encrypted. The administrator sees from the security logs that the data was last accessed by a domain user.
Which of the following best describes the type of attack that occurred?
- A . Insider threat
- B . Social engineering
- C . Watering-hole
- D . Unauthorized attacker
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
An insider threat is a type of attack that originates from someone who has legitimate access to an organization’s network, systems, or data. In this case, the domain user who encrypted the files on the database server is an example of an insider threat, as they abused their access privileges to cause harm to the organization. Insider threats can be motivated by various factors, such as financial gain, revenge, espionage, or sabotage.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts, page 251. CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts, page 252.
A
Explanation:
An insider threat is a type of attack that originates from someone who has legitimate access to an organization’s network, systems, or data. In this case, the domain user who encrypted the files on the database server is an example of an insider threat, as they abused their access privileges to cause harm to the organization. Insider threats can be motivated by various factors, such as financial gain, revenge, espionage, or sabotage.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts, page 251. CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1: General Security Concepts, page 252.
Question #2
An organization recently updated its security policy to include the following statement:
Regular expressions are included in source code to remove special characters such as $, |, ;. &, `, and ? from variables set by forms in a web application.
Which of the following best explains the security technique the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy?
- A . Identify embedded keys
- B . Code debugging
- C . Input validation
- D . Static code analysis
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Input validation is a security technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the application. Input validation can prevent various types of attacks, such as injection, cross-site scripting, buffer overflow, and command execution, that exploit the vulnerabilities in the application code. Input validation can be performed on both the client-side and the server-side, using methods such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, sanitizing, escaping, and encoding. By including regular expressions in the source code to remove special characters from the variables set by the forms in the web application, the organization adopted input validation as a security technique. Regular expressions are patterns that match a specific set of characters or strings, and can be used to filter out any unwanted or harmful input. Special characters, such as $, |, ;, &, `, and ?, can be used by attackers to inject commands or scripts into the application, and cause damage or data theft. By removing these characters from the input, the organization can reduce the risk of such attacks.
Identify embedded keys, code debugging, and static code analysis are not the security techniques that the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy. Identify embedded keys is a process of finding and removing any hard-coded keys or credentials from the source code, as these can pose a security risk if exposed or compromised. Code debugging is a process of finding and fixing any errors or bugs in the source code, which can affect the functionality or performance of the application. Static code analysis is a process of analyzing the source code without executing it, to identify any vulnerabilities, flaws, or coding standards violations. These techniques are not related to the use of regular expressions to remove special characters from the input.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 375-376; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 4.1 – Vulnerability Scanning, 8:00 – 9:08; Application Security C SY0-601 CompTIA Security+: 3.2, 0:00 – 2:00.
C
Explanation:
Input validation is a security technique that checks the user input for any malicious or unexpected data before processing it by the application. Input validation can prevent various types of attacks, such as injection, cross-site scripting, buffer overflow, and command execution, that exploit the vulnerabilities in the application code. Input validation can be performed on both the client-side and the server-side, using methods such as whitelisting, blacklisting, filtering, sanitizing, escaping, and encoding. By including regular expressions in the source code to remove special characters from the variables set by the forms in the web application, the organization adopted input validation as a security technique. Regular expressions are patterns that match a specific set of characters or strings, and can be used to filter out any unwanted or harmful input. Special characters, such as $, |, ;, &, `, and ?, can be used by attackers to inject commands or scripts into the application, and cause damage or data theft. By removing these characters from the input, the organization can reduce the risk of such attacks.
Identify embedded keys, code debugging, and static code analysis are not the security techniques that the organization adopted by making this addition to the policy. Identify embedded keys is a process of finding and removing any hard-coded keys or credentials from the source code, as these can pose a security risk if exposed or compromised. Code debugging is a process of finding and fixing any errors or bugs in the source code, which can affect the functionality or performance of the application. Static code analysis is a process of analyzing the source code without executing it, to identify any vulnerabilities, flaws, or coding standards violations. These techniques are not related to the use of regular expressions to remove special characters from the input.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 375-376; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 4.1 – Vulnerability Scanning, 8:00 – 9:08; Application Security C SY0-601 CompTIA Security+: 3.2, 0:00 – 2:00.
Question #3
Which of the following threat actors is the most likely to use large financial resources to attack critical systems located in other countries?
- A . Insider
- B . Unskilled attacker
- C . Nation-state
- D . Hacktivist
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A nation-state is a threat actor that is sponsored by a government or a political entity to conduct cyberattacks against other countries or organizations. Nation-states have large financial resources, advanced technical skills, and strategic objectives that may target critical systems such as military, energy, or infrastructure. Nation-states are often motivated by espionage, sabotage, or warfare12.
Reference 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 542: Threat Actors C CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 C 2.1, video by Professor Messer.
C
Explanation:
A nation-state is a threat actor that is sponsored by a government or a political entity to conduct cyberattacks against other countries or organizations. Nation-states have large financial resources, advanced technical skills, and strategic objectives that may target critical systems such as military, energy, or infrastructure. Nation-states are often motivated by espionage, sabotage, or warfare12.
Reference 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 542: Threat Actors C CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 C 2.1, video by Professor Messer.
Question #4
An administrator finds that all user workstations and servers are displaying a message that is associated with files containing an extension of .ryk.
Which of the following types of infections is present on the systems?
- A . Virus
- B . Trojan
- C . Spyware
- D . Ransomware
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the victim’s files and demands a ransom for the decryption key. The ransomware usually displays a message on the infected system with instructions on how to pay the ransom and recover the files. The .ryk extension is associated with a ransomware variant called Ryuk, which targets large organizations and demands high ransoms1.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 17.
D
Explanation:
Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the victim’s files and demands a ransom for the decryption key. The ransomware usually displays a message on the infected system with instructions on how to pay the ransom and recover the files. The .ryk extension is associated with a ransomware variant called Ryuk, which targets large organizations and demands high ransoms1.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 17.
Question #5
A security analyst finds a rogue device during a monthly audit of current endpoint assets that are connected to the network. The corporate network utilizes 002.1X for access control. To be allowed on the network, a device must have a Known hardware address, and a valid user name and password must be entered in a captive portal.
The following is the audit report:
Which of the following is the most likely way a rogue device was allowed to connect?
- A . A user performed a MAC cloning attack with a personal device.
- B . A DMCP failure caused an incorrect IP address to be distributed
- C . An administrator bypassed the security controls for testing.
- D . DNS hijacking let an attacker intercept the captive portal traffic.
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The most likely way a rogue device was able to connect to the network is through a MAC cloning attack. In this attack, a personal device copies the MAC address of an authorized device, bypassing the 802.1X access control that relies on known hardware addresses for network access. The matching MAC addresses in the audit report suggest that this technique was used to gain unauthorized network access.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Network Security and MAC Address Spoofing.
A
Explanation:
The most likely way a rogue device was able to connect to the network is through a MAC cloning attack. In this attack, a personal device copies the MAC address of an authorized device, bypassing the 802.1X access control that relies on known hardware addresses for network access. The matching MAC addresses in the audit report suggest that this technique was used to gain unauthorized network access.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Network Security and MAC Address Spoofing.
Question #6
Which of the following is a reason why a forensic specialist would create a plan to preserve data after an modem and prioritize the sequence for performing forensic analysis?
- A . Order of volatility
- B . Preservation of event logs
- C . Chain of custody
- D . Compliance with legal hold
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
When conducting a forensic analysis after an incident, it’s essential to prioritize the data collection process based on the "order of volatility." This principle dictates that more volatile data (e.g., data in memory, network connections) should be captured before less volatile data (e.g., disk drives, logs).
The idea is to preserve the most transient and potentially valuable evidence first, as it is more likely to be lost or altered quickly.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Digital Forensics.
A
Explanation:
When conducting a forensic analysis after an incident, it’s essential to prioritize the data collection process based on the "order of volatility." This principle dictates that more volatile data (e.g., data in memory, network connections) should be captured before less volatile data (e.g., disk drives, logs).
The idea is to preserve the most transient and potentially valuable evidence first, as it is more likely to be lost or altered quickly.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Digital Forensics.
Question #6
Which of the following is a reason why a forensic specialist would create a plan to preserve data after an modem and prioritize the sequence for performing forensic analysis?
- A . Order of volatility
- B . Preservation of event logs
- C . Chain of custody
- D . Compliance with legal hold
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
When conducting a forensic analysis after an incident, it’s essential to prioritize the data collection process based on the "order of volatility." This principle dictates that more volatile data (e.g., data in memory, network connections) should be captured before less volatile data (e.g., disk drives, logs).
The idea is to preserve the most transient and potentially valuable evidence first, as it is more likely to be lost or altered quickly.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Digital Forensics.
A
Explanation:
When conducting a forensic analysis after an incident, it’s essential to prioritize the data collection process based on the "order of volatility." This principle dictates that more volatile data (e.g., data in memory, network connections) should be captured before less volatile data (e.g., disk drives, logs).
The idea is to preserve the most transient and potentially valuable evidence first, as it is more likely to be lost or altered quickly.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Digital Forensics.
Question #8
Which of the following explains why an attacker cannot easily decrypt passwords using a rainbow table attack?
- A . Digital signatures
- B . Salting
- C . Hashing
- D . Perfect forward secrecy
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Salting is a technique used to enhance the security of hashed passwords by adding a unique, random value (salt) to each password before hashing it. This prevents attackers from easily decrypting passwords using rainbow tables, which are precomputed tables for reversing cryptographic hash functions. Since each password has a unique salt, the same password will produce different hash values, making rainbow table attacks ineffective.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Cryptography and Hashing Techniques.
B
Explanation:
Salting is a technique used to enhance the security of hashed passwords by adding a unique, random value (salt) to each password before hashing it. This prevents attackers from easily decrypting passwords using rainbow tables, which are precomputed tables for reversing cryptographic hash functions. Since each password has a unique salt, the same password will produce different hash values, making rainbow table attacks ineffective.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 04 Security Operations.
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Cryptography and Hashing Techniques.
Question #9
An organization is leveraging a VPN between its headquarters and a branch location.
Which of the
following is the VPN protecting?
- A . Data in use
- B . Data in transit
- C . Geographic restrictions
- D . Data sovereignty
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Data in transit is data that is moving from one location to another, such as over a network or through the air. Data in transit is vulnerable to interception, modification, or theft by malicious actors. A VPN (virtual private network) is a technology that protects data in transit by creating a secure tunnel between two endpoints and encrypting the data that passes through it2.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4, page 145.
B
Explanation:
Data in transit is data that is moving from one location to another, such as over a network or through the air. Data in transit is vulnerable to interception, modification, or theft by malicious actors. A VPN (virtual private network) is a technology that protects data in transit by creating a secure tunnel between two endpoints and encrypting the data that passes through it2.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4, page 145.
Question #10
Which of the following security concepts is the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege?
- A . Integrity
- B . Availability
- C . Confidentiality
- D . Non-repudiation
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Confidentiality is the security concept that ensures data is protected from unauthorized access or disclosure. The principle of least privilege is a technique that grants users or systems the minimum level of access or permissions that they need to perform their tasks, and nothing more. By applying the principle of least privilege to a human resources fileshare, the permissions can be restricted to only those who have a legitimate need to access the sensitive data, such as HR staff, managers, or auditors. This can prevent unauthorized users, such as hackers, employees, or contractors, from accessing, copying, modifying, or deleting the data. Therefore, the principle of least privilege can enhance the confidentiality of the data on the fileshare. Integrity, availability, and non-repudiation are other security concepts, but they are not the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege. Integrity is the security concept that ensures data is accurate and consistent, and protected from unauthorized modification or corruption. Availability is the security concept that ensures data is accessible and usable by authorized users or systems when needed. Non-repudiation is the security concept that ensures the authenticity and accountability of data and actions, and prevents the denial of involvement or responsibility. While these concepts are also important for data security, they are not directly related to the level of access or permissions granted to users or systems.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17, 372-373
C
Explanation:
Confidentiality is the security concept that ensures data is protected from unauthorized access or disclosure. The principle of least privilege is a technique that grants users or systems the minimum level of access or permissions that they need to perform their tasks, and nothing more. By applying the principle of least privilege to a human resources fileshare, the permissions can be restricted to only those who have a legitimate need to access the sensitive data, such as HR staff, managers, or auditors. This can prevent unauthorized users, such as hackers, employees, or contractors, from accessing, copying, modifying, or deleting the data. Therefore, the principle of least privilege can enhance the confidentiality of the data on the fileshare. Integrity, availability, and non-repudiation are other security concepts, but they are not the best reason for permissions on a human resources fileshare to follow the principle of least privilege. Integrity is the security concept that ensures data is accurate and consistent, and protected from unauthorized modification or corruption. Availability is the security concept that ensures data is accessible and usable by authorized users or systems when needed. Non-repudiation is the security concept that ensures the authenticity and accountability of data and actions, and prevents the denial of involvement or responsibility. While these concepts are also important for data security, they are not directly related to the level of access or permissions granted to users or systems.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 16-17, 372-373