Practice Free PK0-005 Exam Online Questions
Question #71
Which of the following should be considered first when determining the privacy management for project data?
- A . Evaluating the current privacy protection program
- B . Understanding applicable privacy regulations
- C . Maintaining awareness of industry best practices
- D . Implementing security role-based controls
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Before starting a new project that involves personal data, the project manager should first understand the relevant privacy regulations that apply to the data subjects, the data controllers, and the data processors. These regulations may vary depending on the location, industry, and nature of the data.
For example, GDPR applies to any project that processes the personal data of individuals in the European Union, regardless of where the project is based or executed. Understanding the applicable privacy regulations will help the project manager to identify the legal obligations, risks, and compliance requirements for the project data.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, Chapter 3: Project Planning, Section 3.4: Data Privacy and Security, p. 121-122; A Project Management Approach to Data Protection Compliance; 10 Data Protection Considerations Before Starting a New Project; Project Teams Must Manage Risk and New Requirements to Ensure Data Privacy
B
Explanation:
Before starting a new project that involves personal data, the project manager should first understand the relevant privacy regulations that apply to the data subjects, the data controllers, and the data processors. These regulations may vary depending on the location, industry, and nature of the data.
For example, GDPR applies to any project that processes the personal data of individuals in the European Union, regardless of where the project is based or executed. Understanding the applicable privacy regulations will help the project manager to identify the legal obligations, risks, and compliance requirements for the project data.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide, Chapter 3: Project Planning, Section 3.4: Data Privacy and Security, p. 121-122; A Project Management Approach to Data Protection Compliance; 10 Data Protection Considerations Before Starting a New Project; Project Teams Must Manage Risk and New Requirements to Ensure Data Privacy
Question #72
A project sponsor requires a system that is capable of providing integrated management of all the business’s core functions.
Which of the following systems is the project sponsor describing?
- A . CMS
- B . CRM
- C . EDRMS
- D . ERP
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
ERP (Enterprise Resource Planning) systems are designed to integrate and manage all core functions of a business, such as finance, HR, and supply chain management. This aligns with CompTIA Project+ guidelines on selecting appropriate systems for organizational needs.
D
Explanation:
ERP (Enterprise Resource Planning) systems are designed to integrate and manage all core functions of a business, such as finance, HR, and supply chain management. This aligns with CompTIA Project+ guidelines on selecting appropriate systems for organizational needs.
Question #73
Which of the following is an activity that should be used in the closing phase of a project to support the project triple constraint?
- A . Evaluating the project
- B . Releasing the resources
- C . Closing the contracts
- D . Reconciling the budget
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Evaluating the project is an activity that should be used in the closing phase of a project to support the project triple constraint. This involves reviewing the project plan, deliverables, and outcomes to ensure they meet the project objectives and requirements.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 4.4.4
A
Explanation:
Evaluating the project is an activity that should be used in the closing phase of a project to support the project triple constraint. This involves reviewing the project plan, deliverables, and outcomes to ensure they meet the project objectives and requirements.
Reference: CompTIA Project+ Study Guide Section 4.4.4
Question #74
A project team is working remotely from different locations across the country. As part of a lessons-learned exercise, the project manager would like to identify the level of engagement among project team members.
Which of the following would be the best tool for the project manager to use?
- A . Meeting chat
- B . Email
- C . Real-time survey
- D . Whiteboard
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A real-time survey is a tool that allows the project manager to collect feedback from the project team members in an interactive and timely manner. A real-time survey can measure the level of engagement, satisfaction, motivation, and performance of the team members, as well as identify any issues, challenges, or opportunities for improvement. A real-time survey can also increase the participation and collaboration of the team members, as they can see the results and comments of their peers instantly. A real-time survey is more effective than a meeting chat, an email, or a whiteboard, as it can reach a larger and more diverse audience, provide more structured and quantitative data, and avoid distractions and interruptions.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Project Closure, p. 367; The 9 best online survey apps in 2023 | Zapier
C
Explanation:
A real-time survey is a tool that allows the project manager to collect feedback from the project team members in an interactive and timely manner. A real-time survey can measure the level of engagement, satisfaction, motivation, and performance of the team members, as well as identify any issues, challenges, or opportunities for improvement. A real-time survey can also increase the participation and collaboration of the team members, as they can see the results and comments of their peers instantly. A real-time survey is more effective than a meeting chat, an email, or a whiteboard, as it can reach a larger and more diverse audience, provide more structured and quantitative data, and avoid distractions and interruptions.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 10: Project Closure, p. 367; The 9 best online survey apps in 2023 | Zapier
Question #75
As a result of an approved change, the project manager updates the project plan with the newest project end date.
Which of the following change control processes should the project manager complete NEXT?
- A . Document the request in the change control log.
- B . Communicate the change deployment.
- C . Conduct an impact assessment.
- D . Implement the change.
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The project manager should communicate the change deployment next after updating the project plan with the newest project end date as a result of an approved change. Communicating the change deployment involves informing all relevant parties about when and how the change will be implemented and what are the expected outcomes and benefits. Communicating the change deployment can help to ensure alignment, readiness, and support for the change and avoid any confusion or resistance.
B
Explanation:
The project manager should communicate the change deployment next after updating the project plan with the newest project end date as a result of an approved change. Communicating the change deployment involves informing all relevant parties about when and how the change will be implemented and what are the expected outcomes and benefits. Communicating the change deployment can help to ensure alignment, readiness, and support for the change and avoid any confusion or resistance.
Question #76
Which of the following provides a layered approach to logging in to systems that contain an organization’s most valuable intellectual property?
- A . Remote access
- B . Password protection
- C . Multifactor authentication
- D . Virtual private network
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Multifactor authentication (MFA) is a security method that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to verify their identity before accessing a system. MFA can use different types of factors, such as something the user knows (e.g., password, PIN, security question), something the user has (e.g., token, smart card, mobile device), or something the user is (e.g., fingerprint, face, voice). MFA provides a layered approach to logging in to systems that contain an organization’s most valuable intellectual property, as it makes it harder for unauthorized users to gain access by compromising one factor alone. MFA can also prevent phishing, brute force, and credential theft attacks12.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide,
C
Explanation:
Multifactor authentication (MFA) is a security method that requires users to provide two or more pieces of evidence to verify their identity before accessing a system. MFA can use different types of factors, such as something the user knows (e.g., password, PIN, security question), something the user has (e.g., token, smart card, mobile device), or something the user is (e.g., fingerprint, face, voice). MFA provides a layered approach to logging in to systems that contain an organization’s most valuable intellectual property, as it makes it harder for unauthorized users to gain access by compromising one factor alone. MFA can also prevent phishing, brute force, and credential theft attacks12.
Reference = CompTIA Project+ PK0-005 Certification Study Guide,
Question #77
A key stakeholder recommends to a senior developer that a new feature be added. The new feature is not part of the current requirement documentation.
Which of the following is MOST likely happening?
- A . Scope creep
- B . Collecting requirements
- C . Decision-making
- D . Project change
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Scope creep is most likely happening when a key stakeholder recommends to a senior developer that a new feature be added that is not part of the current requirement documentation. Scope creep is a term that refers to the uncontrolled expansion or change of a project’s scope beyond its original boundaries or objectives. Scope creep can happen due to various reasons, such as changing customer demands, unclear or incomplete requirements, poor communication, lack of change control, or stakeholder interference. Scope creep can have negative impacts on a project, such as delays, cost overruns, quality issues, or reduced customer satisfaction12
A
Explanation:
Scope creep is most likely happening when a key stakeholder recommends to a senior developer that a new feature be added that is not part of the current requirement documentation. Scope creep is a term that refers to the uncontrolled expansion or change of a project’s scope beyond its original boundaries or objectives. Scope creep can happen due to various reasons, such as changing customer demands, unclear or incomplete requirements, poor communication, lack of change control, or stakeholder interference. Scope creep can have negative impacts on a project, such as delays, cost overruns, quality issues, or reduced customer satisfaction12
Question #78
Which of the following PRINCE2 processes includes creating the project plan?
- A . Starting up a project
- B . Initiating a project
- C . Managing product delivery
- D . Directing a project
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
According to PRINCE2, a project management methodology, the process of initiating a project includes creating the project plan, which is a high-level plan that covers the whole project scope, schedule, budget, quality, and risks. The project plan is based on the project brief, the business case, and the product descriptions. The project plan is used to obtain the authorization from the project board to initiate and execute the project. The project plan is also refined and updated throughout the project life cycle as more information becomes available.
The other processes are not directly involved in creating the project plan. Starting up a project is a pre-project process that ensures the project is viable and worthwhile, and produces the project brief and the initiation stage plan. Managing product delivery is a process that coordinates the delivery of products from the team managers to the project manager, and ensures that the work conforms to the quality criteria and the project plan. Directing a project is a process that enables the project board to oversee and control the project, and make key decisions and approvals.
Reference =
CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management2; PRINCE2 Processes – 7 Processes Of PRINCE2 Explained3; Initiating a Project Process C This process is the procedure which defines the product quality, Project Product, project timeline, costs, the commitment of resources, risk analysis, and assembles the Project Initiation Documentation (PID)4
B
Explanation:
According to PRINCE2, a project management methodology, the process of initiating a project includes creating the project plan, which is a high-level plan that covers the whole project scope, schedule, budget, quality, and risks. The project plan is based on the project brief, the business case, and the product descriptions. The project plan is used to obtain the authorization from the project board to initiate and execute the project. The project plan is also refined and updated throughout the project life cycle as more information becomes available.
The other processes are not directly involved in creating the project plan. Starting up a project is a pre-project process that ensures the project is viable and worthwhile, and produces the project brief and the initiation stage plan. Managing product delivery is a process that coordinates the delivery of products from the team managers to the project manager, and ensures that the work conforms to the quality criteria and the project plan. Directing a project is a process that enables the project board to oversee and control the project, and make key decisions and approvals.
Reference =
CompTIA Project+ Study Guide: Exam PK0-005, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management1; CompTIA Project+ Certification Study Guide, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5: Project Scope Management2; PRINCE2 Processes – 7 Processes Of PRINCE2 Explained3; Initiating a Project Process C This process is the procedure which defines the product quality, Project Product, project timeline, costs, the commitment of resources, risk analysis, and assembles the Project Initiation Documentation (PID)4
Question #79
Which of the following activities should a project manager perform during the closing phase? (Select three).
- A . Lessons learned
- B . Risk analysis
- C . Removing resources
- D . Acquiring resources
- E . Statement of work sign-off
- F . Stakeholder analysis
- G . Removing access
Correct Answer: A, C, G
A, C, G
Explanation:
During the closing phase, a project manager should conduct lessons learned sessions, release resources, and remove access. These actions align with CompTIA Project+ standards for project closure, focusing on finalizing project deliverables, releasing resources, and documenting insights.
A, C, G
Explanation:
During the closing phase, a project manager should conduct lessons learned sessions, release resources, and remove access. These actions align with CompTIA Project+ standards for project closure, focusing on finalizing project deliverables, releasing resources, and documenting insights.
Question #80
By developing a project schedule, a PM has already validated the constraints, outlined the duration of the tasks and the phases, and confirmed the proper sequence and flow of the project.
Which of the following activities still needs to be performed to complete the schedule?
- A . Allocate resources.
- B . Determine the project budget
- C . Develop a communication plan.
- D . Establish baselines.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The next step after defining tasks, durations, resources, and costs is to establish baselines. A baseline is an approved version of a project plan that serves as a reference point for measuring progress and performance throughout the project lifecycle. A baseline typically includes scope, schedule, cost, quality, and risk parameters. Establishing baselines involves presenting the project plan to key stakeholders and obtaining their formal agreement on the project objectives and deliverables. Baseline approval can help to establish clear expectations, avoid scope creep, and facilitate change control during project execution34
D
Explanation:
The next step after defining tasks, durations, resources, and costs is to establish baselines. A baseline is an approved version of a project plan that serves as a reference point for measuring progress and performance throughout the project lifecycle. A baseline typically includes scope, schedule, cost, quality, and risk parameters. Establishing baselines involves presenting the project plan to key stakeholders and obtaining their formal agreement on the project objectives and deliverables. Baseline approval can help to establish clear expectations, avoid scope creep, and facilitate change control during project execution34