Practice Free N10-009 Exam Online Questions
Question #41
A company wants to implement a disaster recovery site or non-critical appliance, which can tolerance a short period of downtime.
Which of the following type of sites should the company impalement to achieve this goal?
- A . Hot
- B . Cold
- C . Warm
- D . Passive
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A warm site is a compromise between a hot site and a cold site, providing a balance between cost and recovery time. It is partially equipped with the necessary hardware, software, and infrastructure, allowing for a quicker recovery compared to a cold site but at a lower cost than a hot site.
Recovery Time: Warm sites can be operational within hours to a day, making them suitable for non-critical applications that can tolerate short downtimes.
Cost-Effectiveness: Warm sites are more economical than hot sites as they do not require all systems
to be fully operational at all times.
Network
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses disaster recovery strategies and the different types of recovery sites.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on disaster recovery planning and site selection. Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains the characteristics of hot, warm, and cold sites and their use cases in disaster recovery planning.
Warm sites offer a practical solution for maintaining business continuity for non-critical applications, balancing the need for availability with cost considerations.
C
Explanation:
A warm site is a compromise between a hot site and a cold site, providing a balance between cost and recovery time. It is partially equipped with the necessary hardware, software, and infrastructure, allowing for a quicker recovery compared to a cold site but at a lower cost than a hot site.
Recovery Time: Warm sites can be operational within hours to a day, making them suitable for non-critical applications that can tolerate short downtimes.
Cost-Effectiveness: Warm sites are more economical than hot sites as they do not require all systems
to be fully operational at all times.
Network
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-007 Official Certification Guide: Discusses disaster recovery strategies and the different types of recovery sites.
Cisco Networking Academy: Provides training on disaster recovery planning and site selection. Network+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide: Explains the characteristics of hot, warm, and cold sites and their use cases in disaster recovery planning.
Warm sites offer a practical solution for maintaining business continuity for non-critical applications, balancing the need for availability with cost considerations.
Question #42
Which of the following attacks would most likely cause duplicate IP addresses in a network?
- A . Rogue DHCP server
- B . DNS poisoning
- C . Social engineering
- D . Denial-of-service
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Definition of a Rogue DHCP Server:
A rogue DHCP server is an unauthorized DHCP server on a network, which can assign IP addresses to devices without proper control, leading to IP address conflicts.
Impact of a Rogue DHCP Server:
IP Address Conflicts: Multiple devices may receive the same IP address from different DHCP servers, causing network connectivity issues.
Network Disruption: Devices may be assigned incorrect network configuration settings, disrupting
network services and connectivity.
Comparison with Other Attacks:
DNS poisoning: Alters DNS records to redirect traffic to malicious sites, but does not cause IP address conflicts.
Social engineering: Involves manipulating individuals to gain unauthorized access or information, not directly related to IP address conflicts.
Denial-of-service (DoS): Floods a network or service with excessive traffic to disrupt operations, but
does not cause duplicate IP addresses.
Prevention and Detection:
Implement network access control measures to prevent unauthorized devices from acting as DHCP servers.
Use DHCP snooping on switches to allow DHCP responses only from authorized DHCP servers.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on network security threats and mitigation techniques.
A
Explanation:
Definition of a Rogue DHCP Server:
A rogue DHCP server is an unauthorized DHCP server on a network, which can assign IP addresses to devices without proper control, leading to IP address conflicts.
Impact of a Rogue DHCP Server:
IP Address Conflicts: Multiple devices may receive the same IP address from different DHCP servers, causing network connectivity issues.
Network Disruption: Devices may be assigned incorrect network configuration settings, disrupting
network services and connectivity.
Comparison with Other Attacks:
DNS poisoning: Alters DNS records to redirect traffic to malicious sites, but does not cause IP address conflicts.
Social engineering: Involves manipulating individuals to gain unauthorized access or information, not directly related to IP address conflicts.
Denial-of-service (DoS): Floods a network or service with excessive traffic to disrupt operations, but
does not cause duplicate IP addresses.
Prevention and Detection:
Implement network access control measures to prevent unauthorized devices from acting as DHCP servers.
Use DHCP snooping on switches to allow DHCP responses only from authorized DHCP servers.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on network security threats and mitigation techniques.
Question #43
Which of the following can also provide a security feature when implemented?
- A . NAT
- B . BGP
- C . FHRP
- D . EIGRP
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
NAT (Network Address Translation) helps hide internal IP addresses from external networks, adding a layer of security by preventing direct access to internal systems from the outside.
A
Explanation:
NAT (Network Address Translation) helps hide internal IP addresses from external networks, adding a layer of security by preventing direct access to internal systems from the outside.
Question #44
A network engineer is designing a secure communication link between two sites. The entire data stream needs to remain confidential.
Which of the following will achieve this goal?
- A . GRE
- B . IKE
- C . ESP
- D . AH
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Definition of ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload):
ESP is a part of the IPsec protocol suite designed to provide confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of data by encrypting the payload and optional ESP trailer. Ensuring Confidentiality:
Encryption: ESP encrypts the payload, ensuring that the data remains confidential during transmission. Only authorized parties with the correct decryption keys can access the data.
Modes of Operation: ESP can operate in transport mode (encrypts only the payload) or tunnel mode (encrypts the entire IP packet), both providing strong encryption to secure data between sites. Comparison with Other Protocols:
GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation): A tunneling protocol that does not provide encryption or security features.
IKE (Internet Key Exchange): A protocol used to set up a secure, authenticated communications channel, but it does not encrypt the data itself.
AH (Authentication Header): Provides integrity and authentication for IP packets but does not encrypt the payload.
Implementation:
Use ESP as part of an IPsec VPN configuration to encrypt and secure communication between two sites. This involves setting up IPsec policies and ensuring both endpoints are configured to use ESP for data encryption.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on IPsec and secure communication protocols.
C
Explanation:
Definition of ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload):
ESP is a part of the IPsec protocol suite designed to provide confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of data by encrypting the payload and optional ESP trailer. Ensuring Confidentiality:
Encryption: ESP encrypts the payload, ensuring that the data remains confidential during transmission. Only authorized parties with the correct decryption keys can access the data.
Modes of Operation: ESP can operate in transport mode (encrypts only the payload) or tunnel mode (encrypts the entire IP packet), both providing strong encryption to secure data between sites. Comparison with Other Protocols:
GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation): A tunneling protocol that does not provide encryption or security features.
IKE (Internet Key Exchange): A protocol used to set up a secure, authenticated communications channel, but it does not encrypt the data itself.
AH (Authentication Header): Provides integrity and authentication for IP packets but does not encrypt the payload.
Implementation:
Use ESP as part of an IPsec VPN configuration to encrypt and secure communication between two sites. This involves setting up IPsec policies and ensuring both endpoints are configured to use ESP for data encryption.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on IPsec and secure communication protocols.
Question #45
A network administrator is connecting two Layer 2 switches in a network. These switches must transfer data in multiple networks.
Which of the following would fulfill this requirement?
- A . Jumbo frames
- B . 802.1Q tagging
- C . Native VLAN
- D . Link aggregation
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
B
Explanation:
Question #46
Which of the following most likely requires the use of subinterfaces?
- A . A router with only one available LAN port
- B . A firewall performing deep packet inspection
- C . A hub utilizing jumbo frames
- D . A switch using Spanning Tree Protocol
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Introduction to Subinterfaces:
Subinterfaces are logical interfaces created on a single physical interface. They are used to enable a router to support multiple networks on a single physical interface.
Use Case for Subinterfaces:
Subinterfaces are commonly used in scenarios where VLANs are implemented. A router with a single physical LAN port can be configured with multiple subinterfaces, each associated with a different VLAN.
This setup allows the router to route traffic between different VLANs.
Example Configuration:
Consider a router with a single physical interface GigabitEthernet0/0 and two VLANs, 10 and 20.
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10
encapsulation dot1Q 10
ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.20
encapsulation dot1Q 20
ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
The encapsulation dot1Q command specifies the VLAN ID.
Explanation of the Options:
A
Explanation:
Introduction to Subinterfaces:
Subinterfaces are logical interfaces created on a single physical interface. They are used to enable a router to support multiple networks on a single physical interface.
Use Case for Subinterfaces:
Subinterfaces are commonly used in scenarios where VLANs are implemented. A router with a single physical LAN port can be configured with multiple subinterfaces, each associated with a different VLAN.
This setup allows the router to route traffic between different VLANs.
Example Configuration:
Consider a router with a single physical interface GigabitEthernet0/0 and two VLANs, 10 and 20.
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10
encapsulation dot1Q 10
ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
!
interface GigabitEthernet0/0.20
encapsulation dot1Q 20
ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
The encapsulation dot1Q command specifies the VLAN ID.
Explanation of the Options:
Question #47
Which of the following disaster recovery metrics is used to describe the amount of data that is lost since the last backup?
- A . MTTR
- B . RTO
- C . RPO
- D . MTBF
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Definition of RPO:
Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is a disaster recovery metric that describes the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It indicates the point in time to which data must be recovered to resume normal operations after a disaster.
For example, if the RPO is set to 24 hours, then the business could tolerate losing up to 24 hours’ worth of data in the event of a disruption.
Why RPO is Important:
RPO is critical for determining backup frequency and helps businesses decide how often they need to back up their data. A lower RPO means more frequent backups and less potential data loss. Comparison with Other Metrics:
MTTR (Mean Time to Repair): Refers to the average time required to repair a system or component and return it to normal operation.
RTO (Recovery Time Objective): The maximum acceptable length of time that a computer, system, network, or application can be down after a failure or disaster occurs.
MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures): The predicted elapsed time between inherent failures of a system during operation.
How RPO is Used in Disaster Recovery:
Organizations establish RPOs to ensure that they can recover data within a timeframe that is acceptable to business operations. This involves creating a backup plan that meets the RPO requirements.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials and certification guides.
C
Explanation:
Definition of RPO:
Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is a disaster recovery metric that describes the maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time. It indicates the point in time to which data must be recovered to resume normal operations after a disaster.
For example, if the RPO is set to 24 hours, then the business could tolerate losing up to 24 hours’ worth of data in the event of a disruption.
Why RPO is Important:
RPO is critical for determining backup frequency and helps businesses decide how often they need to back up their data. A lower RPO means more frequent backups and less potential data loss. Comparison with Other Metrics:
MTTR (Mean Time to Repair): Refers to the average time required to repair a system or component and return it to normal operation.
RTO (Recovery Time Objective): The maximum acceptable length of time that a computer, system, network, or application can be down after a failure or disaster occurs.
MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures): The predicted elapsed time between inherent failures of a system during operation.
How RPO is Used in Disaster Recovery:
Organizations establish RPOs to ensure that they can recover data within a timeframe that is acceptable to business operations. This involves creating a backup plan that meets the RPO requirements.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials and certification guides.
Question #48
In an environment with one router, which of the following will allow a network engineer to communicate between VLANs without purchasing additional hardware?
- A . Subinterfaces
- B . VXLAN
- C . Layer 3 switch
- D . VIR
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
A subinterface is a logical interface created on a single physical router interface that allows routing between VLANs (known as Router-on-a-Stick (ROAS)). This method is commonly used when only one physical router is available, allowing inter-VLAN communication without additional hardware.
• Why not the other options?
• VXLAN (B) C This is used for extending Layer 2 networks over a Layer 3 infrastructure, primarily in data centers. It does not directly enable inter-VLAN communication.
• Layer 3 switch (C) C A Layer 3 switch can route between VLANs, but the scenario states that purchasing additional hardware is not an option.
• VIR (D) C This is not a standard networking term in the context of VLAN communication.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Guide C Chapter 8: VLANs and Inter-VLAN Routing
A
Explanation:
A subinterface is a logical interface created on a single physical router interface that allows routing between VLANs (known as Router-on-a-Stick (ROAS)). This method is commonly used when only one physical router is available, allowing inter-VLAN communication without additional hardware.
• Why not the other options?
• VXLAN (B) C This is used for extending Layer 2 networks over a Layer 3 infrastructure, primarily in data centers. It does not directly enable inter-VLAN communication.
• Layer 3 switch (C) C A Layer 3 switch can route between VLANs, but the scenario states that purchasing additional hardware is not an option.
• VIR (D) C This is not a standard networking term in the context of VLAN communication.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ (N10-009) Official Guide C Chapter 8: VLANs and Inter-VLAN Routing
Question #49
Which of the following routing protocols is most commonly used to interconnect WANs?
- A . IGP
- B . EIGRP
- C . BGP
- D . OSPF
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP): BGP is the most commonly used routing protocol for interconnecting WANs, especially across the internet. It is used for exchanging routing information between autonomous systems (AS), making it the backbone protocol for large-scale WANs.
IGP (A): Interior Gateway Protocols like OSPF and EIGRP are typically used within a single AS, not between them.
EIGRP (B): While it is efficient, EIGRP is primarily used for intra-domain routing and not ideal for WAN interconnection.
OSPF (D): While OSPF can be used for WANs, it is not as common as BGP for inter-AS communication.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Official Study Guide, Domain 1.3 (WAN Concepts), Domain 2.5 (Routing Protocols).
C
Explanation:
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP): BGP is the most commonly used routing protocol for interconnecting WANs, especially across the internet. It is used for exchanging routing information between autonomous systems (AS), making it the backbone protocol for large-scale WANs.
IGP (A): Interior Gateway Protocols like OSPF and EIGRP are typically used within a single AS, not between them.
EIGRP (B): While it is efficient, EIGRP is primarily used for intra-domain routing and not ideal for WAN interconnection.
OSPF (D): While OSPF can be used for WANs, it is not as common as BGP for inter-AS communication.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Official Study Guide, Domain 1.3 (WAN Concepts), Domain 2.5 (Routing Protocols).
Question #50
A client with a 2.4GHz wireless network has stated that the entire office is experiencing intermittent issues with laptops after the WAP was moved.
Which of the following is the most likely reason for these issues?
- A . The network uses a non-overlapping channel.
- B . The signal is reflecting too much.
- C . The network has excessive noise.
- D . A microwave is in the office.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Microwaves are known to interfere with the 2.4GHz frequency, which is the same frequency used by many wireless networks. This can cause signal degradation and intermittent connectivity issues, especially if the WAP is placed near such devices.
D
Explanation:
Microwaves are known to interfere with the 2.4GHz frequency, which is the same frequency used by many wireless networks. This can cause signal degradation and intermittent connectivity issues, especially if the WAP is placed near such devices.