Practice Free N10-008 Exam Online Questions
Question #231
Which of the following can have multiple VLAN interfaces?
- A . Hub
- B . Layer 3 switch
- C . Bridge
- D . Load balancer
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A VLAN interface is a virtual interface that can be assigned to a VLAN and configured with an IP
address and other parameters. It can be used to enable inter-VLAN routing, management access, or firewall filtering on a device.
A hub is a device that connects multiple devices in a network and broadcasts all incoming traffic to all ports. It does not support VLANs or routing functions. Therefore, option A is incorrect.
A layer 3 switch is a device that combines the functions of a layer 2 switch and a router. It can forward frames based on MAC addresses and packets based on IP addresses. It can also support multiple VLAN interfaces and enable inter-VLAN routing without the need for an external router. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
A bridge is a device that connects two network segments and forwards frames based on MAC addresses. It can reduce collisions and increase bandwidth, but it does not support VLANs or routing functions. Therefore, option C is incorrect.
A load balancer is a device that distributes incoming traffic among multiple servers or devices based on various criteria. It can improve performance, availability, and scalability of a network service. It can support VLANs, but it does not have multiple VLAN interfaces. Therefore, option D is incorrect.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Devices, pages 51-52, 55-56, 59-60, 63-64.
Professor Messer’s Network+ Video Course, Section 1.1: Network Devices, videos 1.1.1 – 1.1.4, 1.1.6, 1.1.7, 1.1.9.
Cisco: Configuring InterVLAN Routing
B
Explanation:
A VLAN interface is a virtual interface that can be assigned to a VLAN and configured with an IP
address and other parameters. It can be used to enable inter-VLAN routing, management access, or firewall filtering on a device.
A hub is a device that connects multiple devices in a network and broadcasts all incoming traffic to all ports. It does not support VLANs or routing functions. Therefore, option A is incorrect.
A layer 3 switch is a device that combines the functions of a layer 2 switch and a router. It can forward frames based on MAC addresses and packets based on IP addresses. It can also support multiple VLAN interfaces and enable inter-VLAN routing without the need for an external router. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
A bridge is a device that connects two network segments and forwards frames based on MAC addresses. It can reduce collisions and increase bandwidth, but it does not support VLANs or routing functions. Therefore, option C is incorrect.
A load balancer is a device that distributes incoming traffic among multiple servers or devices based on various criteria. It can improve performance, availability, and scalability of a network service. It can support VLANs, but it does not have multiple VLAN interfaces. Therefore, option D is incorrect.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Devices, pages 51-52, 55-56, 59-60, 63-64.
Professor Messer’s Network+ Video Course, Section 1.1: Network Devices, videos 1.1.1 – 1.1.4, 1.1.6, 1.1.7, 1.1.9.
Cisco: Configuring InterVLAN Routing
Question #232
A network administrator needs to provide evidence to confirm that recent network outages were caused by increased traffic generated by a recently released application.
Which of the following actions will BEST support the administrator’s response?
- A . Generate a network baseline report for comparison.
- B . Export the firewall traffic logs.
- C . Collect the router’s NetFlow data.
- D . Plot interface statistics for dropped packets.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
NetFlow is a protocol that collects and analyzes network traffic data, such as source and destination IP addresses, ports, protocols, bytes, packets, and flows12.
NetFlow data can help identify the volume, type, and direction of network traffic, as well as the applications and hosts that are generating or consuming the most bandwidth12.
By collecting NetFlow data from the router, the network administrator can provide evidence to confirm that the recent network outages were caused by increased traffic from a specific application or host12.
Generating a network baseline report, exporting the firewall traffic logs, or plotting interface statistics for dropped packets may also provide some useful information, but they are not as specific or comprehensive as NetFlow data12.
Reference:
1: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Cram, 6th Edition, Chapter 5: Network Traffic Analysis, p. 203-204
2: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, 1st Edition, Chapter 9: Network Monitoring and Performance Optimization, p. 409-410
C
Explanation:
NetFlow is a protocol that collects and analyzes network traffic data, such as source and destination IP addresses, ports, protocols, bytes, packets, and flows12.
NetFlow data can help identify the volume, type, and direction of network traffic, as well as the applications and hosts that are generating or consuming the most bandwidth12.
By collecting NetFlow data from the router, the network administrator can provide evidence to confirm that the recent network outages were caused by increased traffic from a specific application or host12.
Generating a network baseline report, exporting the firewall traffic logs, or plotting interface statistics for dropped packets may also provide some useful information, but they are not as specific or comprehensive as NetFlow data12.
Reference:
1: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Cram, 6th Edition, Chapter 5: Network Traffic Analysis, p. 203-204
2: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, 1st Edition, Chapter 9: Network Monitoring and Performance Optimization, p. 409-410
Question #233
AGRE tunnel has been configured between two remote sites.
Which of the following features, when configured, ensures me GRE overhead does not affect payload?
- A . jumbo frames
- B . Auto medium-dependent Interface
- C . Interface crossover
- D . Collision detection
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
One of the features that can be configured to ensure that GRE overhead does not affect payload is
A
Explanation:
One of the features that can be configured to ensure that GRE overhead does not affect payload is
Question #234
A Fortune 500 firm is deciding On the kind or data center equipment to install given its five-year budget Outlook. The Chief Information comparing equipment based on the life expectancy Of different models.
Which Of the
following concepts BEST represents this metric?
- A . MTBF
- B . MTRR
- C . RPO
- D . RTO
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The concept that best represents the life expectancy of different models of data center equipment is MTBF, which stands for Mean Time Between Failures. MTBF is a measure of the average time that a device or component operates before it fails. It is calculated by dividing the total operating time by the number of failures. MTBF is an indicator of the reliability and durability of the equipment, and it can help the Chief Information Officer (CIO) to compare the expected performance and maintenance costs of different models.
MTRR, which stands for Memory Type Range Register, is not a concept that represents the life expectancy of data center equipment. MTRR is a feature of some processors that allows them to control how the memory is accessed and cached. MTRR can improve the performance and efficiency of the processor, but it does not affect the longevity of the equipment.
RPO, which stands for Recovery Point Objective, is not a concept that represents the life expectancy of data center equipment. RPO is a measure of the maximum amount of data that can be lost in the event of a disaster or disruption. It is determined by the frequency and method of data backup. RPO is an indicator of the data protection and recovery strategy, and it can help the CIO to plan for the worst-case scenario, but it does not reflect the durability of the equipment.
RTO, which stands for Recovery Time Objective, is not a concept that represents the life expectancy of data center equipment. RTO is a measure of the maximum amount of time that it takes to restore the normal operations of the network after a disaster or disruption. It is determined by the complexity and availability of the recovery resources and processes. RTO is an indicator of the business continuity and resilience, and it can help the CIO to minimize the downtime and losses, but it does not reflect the reliability of the equipment.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 3: Network Operations, Section 3.2:
Troubleshooting Methodology and Tools, Page 150
Professor Messer’s Network+ N10-008 Course Notes, Page 18
Professor Messer’s Network+ N10-008 Video Training Course, Section 3.2: Network Troubleshooting
Tools, Video 3.2.3: Hardware Tools
A
Explanation:
The concept that best represents the life expectancy of different models of data center equipment is MTBF, which stands for Mean Time Between Failures. MTBF is a measure of the average time that a device or component operates before it fails. It is calculated by dividing the total operating time by the number of failures. MTBF is an indicator of the reliability and durability of the equipment, and it can help the Chief Information Officer (CIO) to compare the expected performance and maintenance costs of different models.
MTRR, which stands for Memory Type Range Register, is not a concept that represents the life expectancy of data center equipment. MTRR is a feature of some processors that allows them to control how the memory is accessed and cached. MTRR can improve the performance and efficiency of the processor, but it does not affect the longevity of the equipment.
RPO, which stands for Recovery Point Objective, is not a concept that represents the life expectancy of data center equipment. RPO is a measure of the maximum amount of data that can be lost in the event of a disaster or disruption. It is determined by the frequency and method of data backup. RPO is an indicator of the data protection and recovery strategy, and it can help the CIO to plan for the worst-case scenario, but it does not reflect the durability of the equipment.
RTO, which stands for Recovery Time Objective, is not a concept that represents the life expectancy of data center equipment. RTO is a measure of the maximum amount of time that it takes to restore the normal operations of the network after a disaster or disruption. It is determined by the complexity and availability of the recovery resources and processes. RTO is an indicator of the business continuity and resilience, and it can help the CIO to minimize the downtime and losses, but it does not reflect the reliability of the equipment.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 3: Network Operations, Section 3.2:
Troubleshooting Methodology and Tools, Page 150
Professor Messer’s Network+ N10-008 Course Notes, Page 18
Professor Messer’s Network+ N10-008 Video Training Course, Section 3.2: Network Troubleshooting
Tools, Video 3.2.3: Hardware Tools
Question #235
An organization needs a solution that will inspect network traffic, determine security threats using signature-based rules, and block the traffic in real time based on the security assessment.
Which of the following network devices will support these requirements?
- A . SIEM
- B . VPN
- C . IPS
- D . DLP
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is designed to inspect network traffic, identify malicious activity using signature-based rules, and block potentially harmful traffic in real time. This aligns with the requirements stated in the question.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide1
CompTIA Network+ N10-007 vs. N10-008: What’s New
C
Explanation:
An Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) is designed to inspect network traffic, identify malicious activity using signature-based rules, and block potentially harmful traffic in real time. This aligns with the requirements stated in the question.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide1
CompTIA Network+ N10-007 vs. N10-008: What’s New
Question #236
A user reports having intermittent connectivity issues to the company network.
The network configuration for the user reveals the following:
IP address: 192.168.1.10
Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0
Default gateway: 192.168.1.254
The network switch shows the following ARP table:
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the user’s connection issues?
- A . A port with incorrect VLAN assigned
- B . A switch with spanning tree conflict
- C . Another PC with manually configured IP
- D . A router with overlapping route tables
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
This is the most likely cause of the user’s connection issues, because the ARP table of the switch shows that there are two devices with the same IP address of 192.168.1.10, but different MAC addresses. This indicates that there is an IP address conflict on the network, where two devices are trying to use the same IP address. This can cause intermittent connectivity issues, as the switch may not be able to forward packets to the correct destination.
C
Explanation:
This is the most likely cause of the user’s connection issues, because the ARP table of the switch shows that there are two devices with the same IP address of 192.168.1.10, but different MAC addresses. This indicates that there is an IP address conflict on the network, where two devices are trying to use the same IP address. This can cause intermittent connectivity issues, as the switch may not be able to forward packets to the correct destination.
Question #237
Users are reporting intermittent Wi-Fi connectivity in specific parts of a building.
Which of the following should the network administrator check FIRST when troubleshooting this issue? (Select TWO).
- A . Site survey
- B . EIRP
- C . AP placement
- D . Captive portal
- E . SSID assignment
- F . AP association time
Correct Answer: A, C
A, C
Explanation:
A site survey is a process of analyzing the wireless environment and determining the optimal locations, configurations, and parameters for access points (APs). A site survey can help identify sources of interference, dead spots, signal strength, and coverage areas1.
AP placement is the physical location of the APs in relation to the wireless clients, walls, ceilings, floors, and other obstacles. AP placement affects the signal quality, coverage, and performance of the wireless network2.
The network administrator should check the site survey and the AP placement first when
troubleshooting intermittent Wi-Fi connectivity issues, as these factors can directly impact the wireless signal and user experience.
EIRP (Effective Isotropic Radiated Power) is the total power radiated by an antenna in a specific direction. EIRP is affected by the transmitter power, cable loss, and antenna gain3. EIRP is not the first thing to check, as it is usually configured according to the site survey and the regulatory standards.
A captive portal is a web page that requires users to authenticate or accept some terms and conditions before accessing the wireless network. A captive portal can be used for security, marketing, or legal purposes. A captive portal is not the first thing to check, as it does not affect the wireless signal or connectivity, but only the access to the network resources.
SSID (Service Set Identifier) is the name of a wireless network that is broadcasted by the APs. SSID assignment is the process of configuring the SSID on the APs and the wireless clients. SSID assignment is not the first thing to check, as it does not affect the wireless signal or connectivity, but only the identification of the network.
AP association time is the time it takes for a wireless client to connect to an AP and establish a wireless link. AP association time is not the first thing to check, as it does not affect the wireless signal or connectivity, but only the initial connection process.
Reference: 1: Site Survey
2: AP Placement
3: EIRP
: [Captive Portal]
A, C
Explanation:
A site survey is a process of analyzing the wireless environment and determining the optimal locations, configurations, and parameters for access points (APs). A site survey can help identify sources of interference, dead spots, signal strength, and coverage areas1.
AP placement is the physical location of the APs in relation to the wireless clients, walls, ceilings, floors, and other obstacles. AP placement affects the signal quality, coverage, and performance of the wireless network2.
The network administrator should check the site survey and the AP placement first when
troubleshooting intermittent Wi-Fi connectivity issues, as these factors can directly impact the wireless signal and user experience.
EIRP (Effective Isotropic Radiated Power) is the total power radiated by an antenna in a specific direction. EIRP is affected by the transmitter power, cable loss, and antenna gain3. EIRP is not the first thing to check, as it is usually configured according to the site survey and the regulatory standards.
A captive portal is a web page that requires users to authenticate or accept some terms and conditions before accessing the wireless network. A captive portal can be used for security, marketing, or legal purposes. A captive portal is not the first thing to check, as it does not affect the wireless signal or connectivity, but only the access to the network resources.
SSID (Service Set Identifier) is the name of a wireless network that is broadcasted by the APs. SSID assignment is the process of configuring the SSID on the APs and the wireless clients. SSID assignment is not the first thing to check, as it does not affect the wireless signal or connectivity, but only the identification of the network.
AP association time is the time it takes for a wireless client to connect to an AP and establish a wireless link. AP association time is not the first thing to check, as it does not affect the wireless signal or connectivity, but only the initial connection process.
Reference: 1: Site Survey
2: AP Placement
3: EIRP
: [Captive Portal]
Question #238
A technician is troubleshooting a wireless connectivity issue in a small office located in a high-rise building. Several APs are mounted in this office. The users report that the network connections frequently disconnect and reconnect throughout the day.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?
- A . The AP association time is set too low
- B . EIRP needs to be boosted
- C . Channel overlap is occurring
- D . The RSSI is misreported
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Channel overlap is a common cause of wireless connectivity issues, especially in high-density environments where multiple APs are operating on the same or adjacent frequencies. Channel overlap can cause interference, signal degradation, and performance loss for wireless devices. The AP association time, EIRP, and RSSI are not likely to cause frequent disconnects and reconnects for wireless users.
C
Explanation:
Channel overlap is a common cause of wireless connectivity issues, especially in high-density environments where multiple APs are operating on the same or adjacent frequencies. Channel overlap can cause interference, signal degradation, and performance loss for wireless devices. The AP association time, EIRP, and RSSI are not likely to cause frequent disconnects and reconnects for wireless users.
Question #239
A company has a geographically remote office. In order to connect to the internet, the company has decided to use a satellite WAN link.
Which of the following is the GREATEST concern for this type of connection?
- A . Duplex
- B . Collisions
- C . Jitter
- D . Encapsulation
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
itter is the variation in latency or delay of packets in a network. Satellite WAN links have high latency and are prone to jitter, which can affect the quality of voice and video applications. Jitter is the greatest concern for this type of connection
C
Explanation:
itter is the variation in latency or delay of packets in a network. Satellite WAN links have high latency and are prone to jitter, which can affect the quality of voice and video applications. Jitter is the greatest concern for this type of connection
Question #240
A technician received a report that some users in a large, 30-floor building are having intermittent connectivity issues. Users on each floor have stable connectivity, but do not have connectivity to other floors.
Which of the following devices is MOST likely causing the issue?
- A . User devices
- B . Edge devices
- C . Access switch
- D . Core switch
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
A core switch is the most likely device causing the issue where users on each floor have stable connectivity, but do not have connectivity to other floors. A core switch is a high-performance switch that connects multiple access switches in a network. An access switch is a switch that connects end devices, such as computers and printers, to the network. A core switch acts as the backbone of the network, providing interconnection and routing between different subnets or VLANs. If the core switch is malfunctioning or misconfigured, it can prevent communication between different segments of the network, resulting in intermittent connectivity issues.
Reference: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Core Switch vs Access Switch: What Are the Differences?
D
Explanation:
A core switch is the most likely device causing the issue where users on each floor have stable connectivity, but do not have connectivity to other floors. A core switch is a high-performance switch that connects multiple access switches in a network. An access switch is a switch that connects end devices, such as computers and printers, to the network. A core switch acts as the backbone of the network, providing interconnection and routing between different subnets or VLANs. If the core switch is malfunctioning or misconfigured, it can prevent communication between different segments of the network, resulting in intermittent connectivity issues.
Reference: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Core Switch vs Access Switch: What Are the Differences?