Practice Free N10-008 Exam Online Questions
Question #191
A Chief Information Officer is concerned about environmental issues in the data center at corporate headquarters.
Which of the following are the most common sensors installed in a data center? (Select two).
- A . Carbon monoxide
- B . Air flow
- C . Flooding
- D . Humidity
- E . Electrical
- F . Temperature
Correct Answer: D, F
D, F
Explanation:
The most common sensors installed in a data center to monitor environmental issues include: Temperature Sensors: These sensors monitor the ambient temperature within the data center. Maintaining an optimal temperature is crucial for the proper functioning of servers and other equipment.
Humidity Sensors: These sensors measure the humidity levels. High humidity can cause condensation, leading to equipment damage, while low humidity can cause static electricity buildup.
Reference: 1: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives (N10-008)
D, F
Explanation:
The most common sensors installed in a data center to monitor environmental issues include: Temperature Sensors: These sensors monitor the ambient temperature within the data center. Maintaining an optimal temperature is crucial for the proper functioning of servers and other equipment.
Humidity Sensors: These sensors measure the humidity levels. High humidity can cause condensation, leading to equipment damage, while low humidity can cause static electricity buildup.
Reference: 1: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives (N10-008)
Question #192
A software developer changed positions within a company and is now a sales engineer. The security team discovered that the former software developer had been modifying code to implement small features requested by customers.
Which of the following would be the best thing for the security administrator to implement to prevent this from happening?
- A . A software patching policy
- B . A role-based access control policy
- C . Firewalls on the software development servers
- D . Longer and more complex password requirements
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A role-based access control (RBAC) policy is a security measure that assigns permissions and privileges to users based on their roles and responsibilities within an organization. RBAC helps to enforce the principle of least privilege, which states that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. RBAC also helps to prevent unauthorized access, modification, or misuse of sensitive data or resources by limiting the scope and impact of user actions.
A software patching policy, firewalls on the software development servers, and longer and more complex password requirements are all good security practices, but they do not directly address the issue of preventing the former software developer from modifying code. A software patching policy ensures that software is updated regularly to fix bugs and vulnerabilities, but it does not prevent a user from introducing new code changes. Firewalls on the software development servers protect the servers from external attacks, but they do not prevent a user from accessing the servers internally. Longer and more complex password requirements make it harder for attackers to guess or crack passwords, but they do not prevent a user from using their own valid credentials.
Reference
1: Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) – Definition and Examples
2: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications
3: [What is the Principle of Least Privilege? – Definition from Techopedia]
B
Explanation:
A role-based access control (RBAC) policy is a security measure that assigns permissions and privileges to users based on their roles and responsibilities within an organization. RBAC helps to enforce the principle of least privilege, which states that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. RBAC also helps to prevent unauthorized access, modification, or misuse of sensitive data or resources by limiting the scope and impact of user actions.
A software patching policy, firewalls on the software development servers, and longer and more complex password requirements are all good security practices, but they do not directly address the issue of preventing the former software developer from modifying code. A software patching policy ensures that software is updated regularly to fix bugs and vulnerabilities, but it does not prevent a user from introducing new code changes. Firewalls on the software development servers protect the servers from external attacks, but they do not prevent a user from accessing the servers internally. Longer and more complex password requirements make it harder for attackers to guess or crack passwords, but they do not prevent a user from using their own valid credentials.
Reference
1: Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) – Definition and Examples
2: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications
3: [What is the Principle of Least Privilege? – Definition from Techopedia]
Question #193
A technician is troubleshooting a client’s report about poor wireless performance.
Using a client monitor, the technician notes the following information:
Which of the following is most likely the cause of the issue?
- A . Channel overlap
- B . Poor signal
- C . Incorrect power settings
- D . Wrong antenna type
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Channel overlap is a situation where multiple wireless networks use the same or adjacent frequency channels, causing interference and degradation of performance. According to the image, the corporate SSID is using channels 9, 10, 11, and 6, which are overlapping with each other and with other networks in the area. This can reduce the signal quality and strength, increase the noise and latency, and cause dropouts and connectivity issues. To avoid channel overlap, it is recommended to use non-overlapping channels, such as 1, 6, and 11, in the 2.4 GHz band, or to switch to the 5 GHz band if possible12.
Reference
1 – What happens when wifi channels overlap? – Server Fault
2 – Is it better to use a crowded 2.4GHz Wi-Fi channel 1, 6, 11 or “unused” 3, 4, 8, or 9? – Super User
A
Explanation:
Channel overlap is a situation where multiple wireless networks use the same or adjacent frequency channels, causing interference and degradation of performance. According to the image, the corporate SSID is using channels 9, 10, 11, and 6, which are overlapping with each other and with other networks in the area. This can reduce the signal quality and strength, increase the noise and latency, and cause dropouts and connectivity issues. To avoid channel overlap, it is recommended to use non-overlapping channels, such as 1, 6, and 11, in the 2.4 GHz band, or to switch to the 5 GHz band if possible12.
Reference
1 – What happens when wifi channels overlap? – Server Fault
2 – Is it better to use a crowded 2.4GHz Wi-Fi channel 1, 6, 11 or “unused” 3, 4, 8, or 9? – Super User
Question #194
A network security engineer is investigating a potentially malicious Insider on the network. The network security engineer would like to view all traffic coming from the user’s PC to the switch without interrupting any traffic or having any downtime.
Which of the following should the network security engineer do?
- A . Turn on port security.
- B . Implement dynamic ARP inspection.
- C . Configure 802.1Q.
- D . Enable port mirroring.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Port mirroring is a feature that allows a network switch to copy the traffic from one or more ports to another port for monitoring purposes. Port mirroring can be used to analyze the network traffic from a specific source, destination, or protocol without affecting the normal operation of the network.
Port mirroring can also help to detect and troubleshoot network problems, such as performance issues, security breaches, or policy violations.
The other options are not correct because they do not meet the requirements of the question. They are:
Turn on port security. Port security is a feature that restricts the number and type of devices that can connect to a switch port. Port security can help to prevent unauthorized access, MAC address spoofing, or MAC flooding attacks. However, port security does not allow the network security engineer to view the traffic from the user’s PC to the switch.
Implement dynamic ARP inspection. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a feature that validates the ARP packets on a network and prevents ARP spoofing attacks. DAI can help to protect the network from man-in-the-middle, denial-of-service, or data interception attacks. However, DAI does not allow the network security engineer to view the traffic from the user’s PC to the switch.
Configure 802.1Q. 802.1Q is a standard that defines how to create and manage virtual LANs (VLANs) on a network. VLANs can help to segment the network into logical groups based on function, security, or performance. However, 802.1Q does not allow the network security engineer to view the traffic from the user’s PC to the switch.
Reference
1: Port Mirroring – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
2: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications
3: Port Security – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
4: Dynamic ARP Inspection – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
5: 802.1Q – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
D
Explanation:
Port mirroring is a feature that allows a network switch to copy the traffic from one or more ports to another port for monitoring purposes. Port mirroring can be used to analyze the network traffic from a specific source, destination, or protocol without affecting the normal operation of the network.
Port mirroring can also help to detect and troubleshoot network problems, such as performance issues, security breaches, or policy violations.
The other options are not correct because they do not meet the requirements of the question. They are:
Turn on port security. Port security is a feature that restricts the number and type of devices that can connect to a switch port. Port security can help to prevent unauthorized access, MAC address spoofing, or MAC flooding attacks. However, port security does not allow the network security engineer to view the traffic from the user’s PC to the switch.
Implement dynamic ARP inspection. Dynamic ARP inspection (DAI) is a feature that validates the ARP packets on a network and prevents ARP spoofing attacks. DAI can help to protect the network from man-in-the-middle, denial-of-service, or data interception attacks. However, DAI does not allow the network security engineer to view the traffic from the user’s PC to the switch.
Configure 802.1Q. 802.1Q is a standard that defines how to create and manage virtual LANs (VLANs) on a network. VLANs can help to segment the network into logical groups based on function, security, or performance. However, 802.1Q does not allow the network security engineer to view the traffic from the user’s PC to the switch.
Reference
1: Port Mirroring – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
2: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications
3: Port Security – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
4: Dynamic ARP Inspection – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
5: 802.1Q – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
Question #195
A network technician is configuring a new firewall for a company with the necessary access requirements to be allowed through the firewall.
Which of the following would normally be applied as the LAST rule in the firewall?
- A . Secure SNMP
- B . Port security
- C . Implicit deny
- D . DHCP snooping
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Implicit deny is a firewall rule that blocks all traffic that is not explicitly allowed by other rules. Implicit deny is usually applied as the last rule in the firewall to ensure that only the necessary access requirements are allowed through the firewall and that any unwanted or malicious traffic is rejected. Implicit deny can also provide a default security policy and a baseline for auditing and logging purposes.
Secure SNMP is a protocol that allows network devices to send event messages to a centralized server or console for logging and analysis. Secure SNMP can be used to monitor and manage the status, performance, and configuration of network devices. Secure SNMP can also help to detect and respond to potential problems or faults on the network. However, secure SNMP is not a firewall rule; it is a network management protocol.
Port security is a feature that allows a switch to restrict the devices that can connect to a specific port based on their MAC addresses. Port security can help to prevent unauthorized access, spoofing, or MAC flooding attacks on the switch. However, port security is not a firewall rule; it is a switch feature. DHCP snooping is a feature that allows a switch to filter DHCP messages and prevent rogue DHCP servers from assigning IP addresses to devices on the network. DHCP snooping can help to prevent IP address conflicts, spoofing, or denial-of-service attacks on the network. However, DHCP snooping is not a firewall rule; it is a switch feature.
C
Explanation:
Implicit deny is a firewall rule that blocks all traffic that is not explicitly allowed by other rules. Implicit deny is usually applied as the last rule in the firewall to ensure that only the necessary access requirements are allowed through the firewall and that any unwanted or malicious traffic is rejected. Implicit deny can also provide a default security policy and a baseline for auditing and logging purposes.
Secure SNMP is a protocol that allows network devices to send event messages to a centralized server or console for logging and analysis. Secure SNMP can be used to monitor and manage the status, performance, and configuration of network devices. Secure SNMP can also help to detect and respond to potential problems or faults on the network. However, secure SNMP is not a firewall rule; it is a network management protocol.
Port security is a feature that allows a switch to restrict the devices that can connect to a specific port based on their MAC addresses. Port security can help to prevent unauthorized access, spoofing, or MAC flooding attacks on the switch. However, port security is not a firewall rule; it is a switch feature. DHCP snooping is a feature that allows a switch to filter DHCP messages and prevent rogue DHCP servers from assigning IP addresses to devices on the network. DHCP snooping can help to prevent IP address conflicts, spoofing, or denial-of-service attacks on the network. However, DHCP snooping is not a firewall rule; it is a switch feature.
Question #196
An administrator wants to host services on the internet using an internal server. The server is configured with an RFC1918 address, and the administrator wants to make the services that are hosted on the server available on one of the company’s public IP addresses.
Which of the following should the administrator configure to allow this access?
- A . IPv6 tunneling
- B . Virtual IP
- C . Dual stack
- D . EUI-64
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
A virtual IP (VIP) is an IP address that is shared by multiple servers or devices on a network. A VIP can be used to provide load balancing, failover, or high availability for services that are hosted on the network. A VIP can also be used to map an internal server’s private IP address to a public IP address, allowing the server to host services on the internet. This is also known as network address translation (NAT) or port forwarding.
The other options are not correct because they are not related to mapping an internal server’s IP address to a public IP address.
They are:
• IPv6 tunneling is a technique that allows IPv6 packets to be encapsulated and transmitted over an IPv4 network.
• Dual stack is a configuration that allows a device to support both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols simultaneously.
• EUI-64 is a method of generating a 64-bit interface identifier for an IPv6 address based on the 48-bit MAC address of the device.
Reference
: What is a Virtual IP Address (VIP)? – Definition from Techopedia
: IPv6 Tunneling – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
: Dual Stack Definition
: [EUI-64 – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics]
B
Explanation:
A virtual IP (VIP) is an IP address that is shared by multiple servers or devices on a network. A VIP can be used to provide load balancing, failover, or high availability for services that are hosted on the network. A VIP can also be used to map an internal server’s private IP address to a public IP address, allowing the server to host services on the internet. This is also known as network address translation (NAT) or port forwarding.
The other options are not correct because they are not related to mapping an internal server’s IP address to a public IP address.
They are:
• IPv6 tunneling is a technique that allows IPv6 packets to be encapsulated and transmitted over an IPv4 network.
• Dual stack is a configuration that allows a device to support both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols simultaneously.
• EUI-64 is a method of generating a 64-bit interface identifier for an IPv6 address based on the 48-bit MAC address of the device.
Reference
: What is a Virtual IP Address (VIP)? – Definition from Techopedia
: IPv6 Tunneling – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
: Dual Stack Definition
: [EUI-64 – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics]
Question #197
Which of the following combinations of single cables and transceivers will allow a server to have 40GB of network throughput? (Select two).
- A . SFP+
- B . SFP
- C . QSFP+
- D . Multimode
- E . Cat 6a
- F . Cat5e
Correct Answer: CD
CD
Explanation:
QSFP+ is a type of transceiver that supports 40 gigabit Ethernet (40GbE) over four lanes of 10 gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) each. QSFP+ stands for quad small form-factor pluggable plus, and it is a compact and hot-swappable module that plugs into a QSFP+ port on a network device. QSFP+ transceivers can support various types of cables and connectors, such as direct attach copper (DAC), active optical cable (AOC), or fiber optic cable.
Multimode is a type of fiber optic cable that supports multiple modes of light propagation within the core. Multimode fiber optic cable can carry higher bandwidth and data rates than single-mode fiber optic cable, but over shorter distances. Multimode fiber optic cable is commonly used for short-reach applications, such as within a data center or a campus network. Multimode fiber optic cable can be paired with QSFP+ transceivers to achieve 40GbE connectivity.
The other options are not correct because they do not support 40GbE.
They are:
SFP+. SFP+ is a type of transceiver that supports 10 gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) over a single lane. SFP+ stands for small form-factor pluggable plus, and it is a compact and hot-swappable module that plugs into an SFP+ port on a network device. SFP+ transceivers can support various types of cables and connectors, such as direct attach copper (DAC), active optical cable (AOC), or fiber optic cable. However, SFP+ transceivers cannot support 40GbE by themselves, unless they are used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver.
SFP. SFP is a type of transceiver that supports 1 gigabit Ethernet (1GbE) over a single lane. SFP stands for small form-factor pluggable, and it is a compact and hot-swappable module that plugs into an SFP port on a network device. SFP transceivers can support various types of cables and connectors, such as twisted-pair copper, coaxial cable, or fiber optic cable. However, SFP transceivers cannot support 40GbE by themselves, unless they are used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver. Cat 6a. Cat 6a is a type of twisted-pair copper cable that supports 10 gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) over distances up to 100 meters. Cat 6a stands for category 6 augmented, and it is an enhanced version of Cat 6 cable that offers better performance and reduced crosstalk. Cat 6a cable can be paired with 10Gbase-T transceivers to achieve 10GbE connectivity. However, Cat 6a cable cannot support 40GbE by itself, unless it is used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver.
Cat 5e. Cat 5e is a type of twisted-pair copper cable that supports 1 gigabit Ethernet (1GbE) over distances up to 100 meters. Cat 5e stands for category 5 enhanced, and it is an improved version of Cat 5 cable that offers better performance and reduced crosstalk. Cat 5e cable can be paired with 1000base-T transceivers to achieve 1GbE connectivity. However, Cat 5e cable cannot support 40GbE by itself, unless it is used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver.
Reference
1: QSFP+ – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
2: Multimode Fiber – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
3: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications
4: SFP+ – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
5: SFP – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
6: Cat 6a – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
7: [Cat 5e – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics]
CD
Explanation:
QSFP+ is a type of transceiver that supports 40 gigabit Ethernet (40GbE) over four lanes of 10 gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) each. QSFP+ stands for quad small form-factor pluggable plus, and it is a compact and hot-swappable module that plugs into a QSFP+ port on a network device. QSFP+ transceivers can support various types of cables and connectors, such as direct attach copper (DAC), active optical cable (AOC), or fiber optic cable.
Multimode is a type of fiber optic cable that supports multiple modes of light propagation within the core. Multimode fiber optic cable can carry higher bandwidth and data rates than single-mode fiber optic cable, but over shorter distances. Multimode fiber optic cable is commonly used for short-reach applications, such as within a data center or a campus network. Multimode fiber optic cable can be paired with QSFP+ transceivers to achieve 40GbE connectivity.
The other options are not correct because they do not support 40GbE.
They are:
SFP+. SFP+ is a type of transceiver that supports 10 gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) over a single lane. SFP+ stands for small form-factor pluggable plus, and it is a compact and hot-swappable module that plugs into an SFP+ port on a network device. SFP+ transceivers can support various types of cables and connectors, such as direct attach copper (DAC), active optical cable (AOC), or fiber optic cable. However, SFP+ transceivers cannot support 40GbE by themselves, unless they are used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver.
SFP. SFP is a type of transceiver that supports 1 gigabit Ethernet (1GbE) over a single lane. SFP stands for small form-factor pluggable, and it is a compact and hot-swappable module that plugs into an SFP port on a network device. SFP transceivers can support various types of cables and connectors, such as twisted-pair copper, coaxial cable, or fiber optic cable. However, SFP transceivers cannot support 40GbE by themselves, unless they are used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver. Cat 6a. Cat 6a is a type of twisted-pair copper cable that supports 10 gigabit Ethernet (10GbE) over distances up to 100 meters. Cat 6a stands for category 6 augmented, and it is an enhanced version of Cat 6 cable that offers better performance and reduced crosstalk. Cat 6a cable can be paired with 10Gbase-T transceivers to achieve 10GbE connectivity. However, Cat 6a cable cannot support 40GbE by itself, unless it is used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver.
Cat 5e. Cat 5e is a type of twisted-pair copper cable that supports 1 gigabit Ethernet (1GbE) over distances up to 100 meters. Cat 5e stands for category 5 enhanced, and it is an improved version of Cat 5 cable that offers better performance and reduced crosstalk. Cat 5e cable can be paired with 1000base-T transceivers to achieve 1GbE connectivity. However, Cat 5e cable cannot support 40GbE by itself, unless it is used in a breakout configuration with a QSFP+ transceiver.
Reference
1: QSFP+ – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
2: Multimode Fiber – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
3: Network+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications
4: SFP+ – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
5: SFP – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
6: Cat 6a – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
7: [Cat 5e – an overview | ScienceDirect Topics]
Question #198
Which of the following routing protocols is hierarchal by nature and uses the router ID to control convergence?
- A . BGP
- B . OSPF
- C . EIGRP
- D . RIP
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
OSPF stands for Open Shortest Path First, which is a link-state routing protocol that is hierarchal by nature and uses the router ID to control convergence. OSPF divides a large network into areas, which are logical groupings of routers that share the same topology information. Each area has a unique identifier and a designated router that connects it to the backbone area (area 0). OSPF uses the router ID, which is a 32-bit number that uniquely identifies each router in the network, to establish adjacencies and exchange routing information. OSPF also uses the router ID to break ties when choosing the best path to a destination. OSPF converges faster than distance-vector routing protocols such as RIP and EIGRP, as it uses the Dijkstra algorithm to calculate the shortest path based on the link cost. BGP, on the other hand, is a path-vector routing protocol that is used to exchange routing information between autonomous systems on the Internet. BGP does not use the router ID to control convergence, but rather uses attributes such as AS path, local preference, and MED to select the best route. BGP is not hierarchal by nature, as it does not divide the network into areas, but rather uses prefixes and policies to control the routing behavior.
Reference
1: OSPF C N10-008 CompTIA Network+: 2.1
2: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 146-149
3: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Subnetting Quiz, question 19
4: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Practice Test, question 8
B
Explanation:
OSPF stands for Open Shortest Path First, which is a link-state routing protocol that is hierarchal by nature and uses the router ID to control convergence. OSPF divides a large network into areas, which are logical groupings of routers that share the same topology information. Each area has a unique identifier and a designated router that connects it to the backbone area (area 0). OSPF uses the router ID, which is a 32-bit number that uniquely identifies each router in the network, to establish adjacencies and exchange routing information. OSPF also uses the router ID to break ties when choosing the best path to a destination. OSPF converges faster than distance-vector routing protocols such as RIP and EIGRP, as it uses the Dijkstra algorithm to calculate the shortest path based on the link cost. BGP, on the other hand, is a path-vector routing protocol that is used to exchange routing information between autonomous systems on the Internet. BGP does not use the router ID to control convergence, but rather uses attributes such as AS path, local preference, and MED to select the best route. BGP is not hierarchal by nature, as it does not divide the network into areas, but rather uses prefixes and policies to control the routing behavior.
Reference
1: OSPF C N10-008 CompTIA Network+: 2.1
2: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 146-149
3: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Subnetting Quiz, question 19
4: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Practice Test, question 8
Question #198
Which of the following routing protocols is hierarchal by nature and uses the router ID to control convergence?
- A . BGP
- B . OSPF
- C . EIGRP
- D . RIP
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
OSPF stands for Open Shortest Path First, which is a link-state routing protocol that is hierarchal by nature and uses the router ID to control convergence. OSPF divides a large network into areas, which are logical groupings of routers that share the same topology information. Each area has a unique identifier and a designated router that connects it to the backbone area (area 0). OSPF uses the router ID, which is a 32-bit number that uniquely identifies each router in the network, to establish adjacencies and exchange routing information. OSPF also uses the router ID to break ties when choosing the best path to a destination. OSPF converges faster than distance-vector routing protocols such as RIP and EIGRP, as it uses the Dijkstra algorithm to calculate the shortest path based on the link cost. BGP, on the other hand, is a path-vector routing protocol that is used to exchange routing information between autonomous systems on the Internet. BGP does not use the router ID to control convergence, but rather uses attributes such as AS path, local preference, and MED to select the best route. BGP is not hierarchal by nature, as it does not divide the network into areas, but rather uses prefixes and policies to control the routing behavior.
Reference
1: OSPF C N10-008 CompTIA Network+: 2.1
2: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 146-149
3: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Subnetting Quiz, question 19
4: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Practice Test, question 8
B
Explanation:
OSPF stands for Open Shortest Path First, which is a link-state routing protocol that is hierarchal by nature and uses the router ID to control convergence. OSPF divides a large network into areas, which are logical groupings of routers that share the same topology information. Each area has a unique identifier and a designated router that connects it to the backbone area (area 0). OSPF uses the router ID, which is a 32-bit number that uniquely identifies each router in the network, to establish adjacencies and exchange routing information. OSPF also uses the router ID to break ties when choosing the best path to a destination. OSPF converges faster than distance-vector routing protocols such as RIP and EIGRP, as it uses the Dijkstra algorithm to calculate the shortest path based on the link cost. BGP, on the other hand, is a path-vector routing protocol that is used to exchange routing information between autonomous systems on the Internet. BGP does not use the router ID to control convergence, but rather uses attributes such as AS path, local preference, and MED to select the best route. BGP is not hierarchal by nature, as it does not divide the network into areas, but rather uses prefixes and policies to control the routing behavior.
Reference
1: OSPF C N10-008 CompTIA Network+: 2.1
2: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 146-149
3: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Subnetting Quiz, question 19
4: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Practice Test, question 8
Question #200
A technician is troubleshooting a connectivity issue with an end user. The end user can access local network shares and intranet pages but is unable to access the internet or remote resources.
Which of the following needs to be reconfigured?
- A . The IP address
- B . The subnet mask
- C . The gateway address
- D . The DNS servers
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The end user can access local network shares and intranet pages, which means that the IP address and the subnet mask are configured correctly and the network interface is working properly. However, the end user is unable to access the internet or remote resources, which means that there is a problem with the name resolution or the routing of the traffic.
The gateway address is responsible for routing the traffic to the destination network, which could be on the internet or another subnet. If the gateway address is incorrect, the end user would not be able to reach any network outside the local subnet.
The DNS servers are responsible for resolving the domain names to the IP addresses, which are needed to communicate with the internet or remote resources. If the DNS servers are incorrect, the end user would not be able to resolve the names of the websites or servers they want to access. Therefore, the most likely cause of the connectivity issue is that the DNS servers need to be reconfigured with the correct addresses.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Protocols and Services, Section 2.2:
TCP/IP Suite, p. 76-77
Network+ N10-008 Practice Test, Question 359
CompTIA Network+ (N10-008) Performance-based Questions (PBQs), Part 1, 1:36
D
Explanation:
The end user can access local network shares and intranet pages, which means that the IP address and the subnet mask are configured correctly and the network interface is working properly. However, the end user is unable to access the internet or remote resources, which means that there is a problem with the name resolution or the routing of the traffic.
The gateway address is responsible for routing the traffic to the destination network, which could be on the internet or another subnet. If the gateway address is incorrect, the end user would not be able to reach any network outside the local subnet.
The DNS servers are responsible for resolving the domain names to the IP addresses, which are needed to communicate with the internet or remote resources. If the DNS servers are incorrect, the end user would not be able to resolve the names of the websites or servers they want to access. Therefore, the most likely cause of the connectivity issue is that the DNS servers need to be reconfigured with the correct addresses.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Protocols and Services, Section 2.2:
TCP/IP Suite, p. 76-77
Network+ N10-008 Practice Test, Question 359
CompTIA Network+ (N10-008) Performance-based Questions (PBQs), Part 1, 1:36