Practice Free N10-008 Exam Online Questions
A network administrator walks into a datacenter and notices an unknown person is following closely. The administrator stops and directs the person to the security desk.
Which of the following attacks did the network administrator prevent?
- A . Evil twin
- B . Tailgating
- C . Piggybacking
- D . Shoulder surfing
B
Explanation:
Tailgating is a physical security attack where an unauthorized person follows an authorized person into a restricted area without proper identification or authorization. The network administrator prevented this attack by stopping and directing the person to the security desk.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 2.0 (Exam Number: N10-006), Domain 3.0 Network Security, Objective 3.1 Compare and contrast risk-related concepts.
SIMULATION
You have been tasked with setting up a wireless network in an office. The network will consist of 3 Access Points and a single switch.
The network must meet the following parameters:
The SSIDs need to be configured as CorpNet with a key of S3cr3t!
The wireless signals should not interfere with each other
The subnet the Access Points and switch are on should only support 30 devices maximum The Access Points should be configured to only support TKIP clients at a maximum speed
INSTRUCTONS
Click on the wireless devices and review their information and adjust the settings of the access points to meet the given requirements.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
Exhibit 2 as follows
Access Point Name AP2
Exhibit 3 as follows
Access Point Name AP3
Which of the following OSI model layers would allow a user to access and download files from a remote computer?
- A . Session
- B . Presentation
- C . Network
- D . Application
D
Explanation:
The application layer of the OSI model (Open Systems Interconnection) is responsible for providing services to applications that allow users to access and download files from a remote computer. These services include file transfer, email, and web access, as well as other related services. In order for a user to access and download files from a remote computer, the application layer must provide the necessary services that allow the user to interact with the remote computer.
A technician is investigating an issue with connectivity at customer’s location. The technician confirms that users can access resources locally but not over the internet The technician theorizes that the local router has failed and investigates further. The technician’s testing results show that the route is functional: however, users still are unable to reach resources on the internal.
Which of the following describes what the technician should do NEXT?
- A . Document the lessons learned
- B . Escalate the issue
- C . identify the symptoms.
- D . Question users for additional information
C
Explanation:
According to the CompTIA Network+ troubleshooting model123, this is the first step in troubleshooting a network problem. The technician should gather information about the current state of the network, such as error messages, device status, network topology, and user feedback. This can help narrow down the scope of the problem and eliminate possible causes.
Several end users viewing a training video report seeing pixelated images while watching. A network administrator reviews the core switch and is unable to find an immediate cause.
Which of the following BEST explains what is occurring?
- A . Jitter
- B . Bandwidth
- C . Latency
- D . Giants
A
Explanation:
"Jitter is the loss of packets due to an overworked WAP. Jitter shows up as choppy conversations over a video call, strange jumps in the middle of an online game―pretty much anything that feels like the network has missed some data. Latency is when data stops moving for a moment due to a WAP being unable to do the work. This manifests as a Word document that stops loading, for example, or an online file that stops downloading."
Which of the following provides guidance to an employee about restricting non-business access to the company’s videoconferencing solution?
- A . Acceptable use policy
- B . Data loss prevention
- C . Remote access policy
- D . Standard operating procedure
A
Explanation:
An acceptable use policy (AUP) is a set of rules that outline the proper and improper use of an organization’s resources, such as its videoconferencing solution. An AUP can provide guidance to employees about what is expected of them when using the organization’s videoconferencing solution, including restricting non-business access to it.
A network engineer configured new firewalls with the correct configuration to be deployed to each remote branch. Unneeded services were disabled, and all firewall rules were applied successfully.
Which of the following should the network engineer perform NEXT to ensure all the firewalls are hardened successfully?
- A . Ensure an implicit permit rule is enabled
- B . Configure the log settings on the firewalls to the central syslog server
- C . Update the firewalls with current firmware and software
- D . Use the same complex passwords on all firewalls
C
Explanation:
Updating the firewalls with current firmware and software is an important step to ensure all the firewalls are hardened successfully, as it can fix any known vulnerabilities or bugs and provide new features or enhancements. Enabling an implicit permit rule is not a good practice for firewall hardening, as it can allow unwanted traffic to pass through the firewall. Configuring the log settings on the firewalls to the central syslog server is a good practice for monitoring and auditing purposes, but it does not harden the firewalls themselves. Using the same complex passwords on all firewalls is not a good practice for password security, as it can increase the risk of compromise if one firewall is breached.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 2.0 (Exam Number: N10-006), Domain 3.0 Network Security, Objective 3.3 Given a scenario, implement network hardening techniques.
A technician is investigating why a PC cannot reach a file server with the IP address 192.168.8.129.
Given the following TCP/IP network configuration:
Which of the following configurations on the PC is incorrect?
- A . Subnet mask
- B . IPv4 address
- C . Default gateway
- D . IPv6 address
C
Explanation:
The default gateway is the IP address of the router that connects the PC to other networks. The default gateway should be on the same subnet as the PC’s IPv4 address. However, in this case, the default gateway is 192.168.9.1, which is on a different subnet than the PC’s IPv4 address of 192.168.8.15. Therefore, the default gateway configuration on the PC is incorrect and prevents the PC from reaching the file server on another subnet.
During a recent security audit, a contracted penetration tester discovered the organization uses a number of insecure protocols.
Which of the following ports should be disallowed so only encrypted protocols are allowed? (Select TWO).
- A . 22
- B . 23
- C . 69
- D . 443
- E . 587
- F . 8080
B, C
Explanation:
Port 23 is used by Telnet, an insecure protocol that sends data in plain text over the network. Telnet should be replaced by SSH, which uses port 22 and encrypts the data.
Port 69 is used by TFTP, an insecure protocol that transfers files without authentication or encryption. TFTP should be replaced by SFTP or FTPS, which use port 22 or 990 respectively and encrypt the data. Port 443 is used by HTTPS, a secure protocol that encrypts the data using SSL/TLS certificates. HTTPS should be preferred over HTTP, which uses port 80 and sends data in plain text.
Port 587 is used by SMTP, a protocol that sends email messages. SMTP can be secured by using STARTTLS, which initiates encryption after the initial handshake. Alternatively, port 465 can be used for SMTPS, which encrypts the data from the start.
Port 8080 is used by HTTP proxy, a protocol that allows clients to access web servers through an intermediary. HTTP proxy can be secured by using HTTPS proxy, which uses port 443 and encrypts the data.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Protocols and Services, pages 62-63, 66-67, 69-70, 72-73, 75-76.
Professor Messer’s CompTIA N10-008 Network+ Course Notes, Section 2.1: Common TCP and UDP Ports, pages 16-17.
Professor Messer’s CompTIA N10-008 Network+ Training Course, Video 2.1: Common TCP and UDP Ports, 6.
Which of the following most likely occurs when an attacker is between the target and a legitimate server?
- A . IP spoofing
- B . VLAN hopping
- C . Rogue DHCP
- D . On-path attack
D
Explanation:
An on-path attack (also known as a man-in-the-middle attack) is a type of security attack where the attacker places themselves between two devices (often a web browser and a web server) and intercepts or modifies communications between the two1. The attacker can then collect information as well as impersonate either of the two agents. For example, an on-path attacker could capture login credentials, redirect traffic to malicious sites, or inject malware into legitimate web pages.
The other options are not correct because they describe different types of attacks:
• IP spoofing is the practice of forging the source IP address of a packet to make it appear as if it came from a trusted or authorized source2.
• VLAN hopping is a technique that allows an attacker to access a VLAN that they are not authorized to access by sending packets with a modified VLAN tag3.
• Rogue DHCP is a scenario where an unauthorized DHCP server offers IP configuration parameters to clients on a network, potentially causing network disruption or redirection to malicious sites4.
Reference
2: Understanding Targeted Attacks: What is a Targeted Attack?
3: Types of attacks – Security on the web | MDN
1: What is an on-path attacker? | Cloudflare
4: [What is a Rogue DHCP Server? – Definition from Techopedia]