Practice Free FC0-U61 Exam Online Questions
Which of the following shows how many results are possible when evaluating Boolean data types?
- A . Two
- B . Four
- C . Three
- D . Five
A
Explanation:
Boolean data types are data types that can only have one of two possible values: true or false. When evaluating Boolean expressions, such as logical operators (AND, OR, NOT) or comparison operators (=, <, >, etc.), the result is also a Boolean value. Therefore, there are only two possible results when evaluating Boolean data types: true or false.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 6: Software Development Concepts, pages 6-10 to 6-11.
CompTIA IT Fundamentals Certification Training, Module 6: Software Development Concepts, Lesson
2: Programming Concepts.
Which of the following network protocols will MOST likely be used when sending and receiving Internet email? (Select TWO.)
- A . SMTP
- B . POP3
- C . SNMP
- D . DHCP
- E . ICMP
- F . SFTP
A, B
Explanation:
SMTP and POP3 are the most likely network protocols that will be used when sending and receiving Internet email. SMTP stands for Simple Mail Transfer Protocol, which is a protocol that enables the transmission of email messages from a client to a server or from one server to another. SMTP is used to send outgoing email messages. POP3 stands for Post Office Protocol version 3, which is a protocol that enables the retrieval of email messages from a server to a client. POP3 is used to download incoming email messages.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 166.
A company wants to build an application that is available to employees without a client component because some employees do not connect to the corporate network in order to work.
Which of the following network types would best deliver this application to all employees?
- A . LAN-hosted
- B . Local server-hosted
- C . Locally installed
- D . Cloud-hosted
D
Explanation:
A cloud-hosted application is accessible over the internet and does not require a client component installed on individual user devices. This type of deployment allows employees to access the application from any location and any device with internet connectivity, which is particularly beneficial for those not connected to the corporate network.
Reference: The advantages and functional descriptions of cloud-hosted services are extensively covered in CompTIA IT Fundamentals and other CompTIA study guides, particularly in sections related to cloud computing and SaaS (Software as a Service).
A company’s team members have both old and new laptops.
Which of the following connectors should be available in the conference room to ensure everyone can use the conference room projectors? (Choose two.)
- A . USB
- B . HDMI
- C . FireWire
- D . VGA
- E . Bluetooth
- F . RJ45
B, D
Explanation:
HDMI and VGA are the connectors that should be available in the conference room to ensure everyone can use the conference room projectors. HDMI and VGA are types of video connectors that are used to connect a video source, such as a laptop, to a video output, such as a projector. HDMI stands for High-Definition Multimedia Interface, which is a digital connector that can transmit high-quality video and audio signals over a single cable. VGA stands for Video Graphics Array, which is an analog connector that can transmit standard-definition video signals over a 15-pin cable. HDMI and VGA are common video connectors that are found on old and new laptops, respectively. Having both HDMI and VGA connectors in the conference room can ensure compatibility and connectivity for different laptops and projectors.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 40.
A gaming console needs to allow for inbound connectivity on a home network to facilitate chat functions.
Which of the following devices is a user MOST likely to configure to allow this?
- A . Cable modem
- B . Wireless router
- C . Access point
- D . Network switch
B
Explanation:
A wireless router is a device that connects wireless devices to a wired network and allows them to communicate with each other and access the Internet. A wireless router also has firewall features that can block or allow inbound or outbound traffic based on rules or settings. A user can configure the wireless router to allow inbound connectivity on a home network for a gaming console by opening or forwarding ports that are used for chat functions. A cable modem, an access point, and a network switch are not devices that can be configured to allow inbound connectivity on a home network for a gaming console.
Reference: CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Study Guide: Exam FC0-U61, Second Edition, Chapter 6: Infrastructure Concepts, page 227.
A customer is looking for a device that uses tap to pay when making purchases.
Which of the following technologies should the customer use?
- A . Wi-Fi
- B . IR
- C . Bluetooth
- D . NFC
D
Explanation:
NFC (Near Field Communication) is a wireless technology that allows devices to communicate and exchange data within a short range, typically a few centimeters. NFC is commonly used for tap to pay transactions, where a customer can use a contactless card or a smart device (such as a smartphone or a smartwatch) to make payments by tapping or hovering over a compatible terminal. NFC is different from other wireless technologies, such as Wi-Fi, IR (Infrared), and Bluetooth, because it does not require pairing, authentication, or network access to work. NFC is also faster, more secure, and more convenient than other payment methods, such as inserting or swiping a card.
Reference: CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Certification Guide, page 25; What is Tap to Pay and How Does It Work?
A product advertising kiosk at a mall is set up using a thin client without a hard drive and is running a web application managed and updated through an internet connection.
Which of the following application delivery methods is most likely being used for the kiosk?
- A . Local network-hosted
- B . Cloud-hosted
- C . Hybrid-installed
- D . Locally installed
B
Explanation:
The application delivery method that is most likely being used for the kiosk is cloud-hosted. Cloud-hosted is a type of application delivery method that involves running and accessing an application from a remote server or service over the internet. Cloud-hosted applications do not require installation or storage on the local device, but only a web browser or a client software to connect to the application. Cloud-hosted applications can provide benefits such as scalability, availability, security, and automatic updates. A product advertising kiosk at a mall that is set up using a thin client without a hard drive and is running a web application managed and updated through an internet connection is most likely using a cloud-hosted application delivery method, as it does not need any local resources or maintenance for the application. Local network-hosted is not the application delivery method that is most likely being used for the kiosk, but rather a type of application delivery method that involves running and accessing an application from a server or a device within the same local area network (LAN) as the client device. Local network-hosted applications require installation or storage on the server or device that hosts the application, but not on the client device. Local network-hosted applications can provide benefits such as speed, reliability, and control. A product advertising kiosk at a mall that is set up using a thin client without a hard drive and is running a web application managed and updated through an internet connection is not likely using a local network-hosted application delivery method, as it would need to be connected to a server or device within the same LAN as the kiosk. Hybrid-installed is not the application delivery method that is most likely being used for the kiosk, but rather a type of application delivery method that involves running and accessing an application from both a local device and a remote server or service over the internet. Hybrid-installed applications require partial installation or storage on the local device, as well as a web browser or a client software to connect to the remote part of the application. Hybrid-installed applications can provide benefits such as flexibility, functionality, and performance. A product advertising kiosk at a mall that is set up using a thin client without a hard drive and is running a web application managed and updated through an internet connection is not likely using a hybrid-installed application delivery method, as it would need some local resources for the application. Locally installed is not the application delivery method that is most likely being used for the kiosk, but rather a type of application delivery method that involves running and accessing an application from the local device only. Locally installed applications require full installation or storage on the local device, but do not need any web browser or client software to connect to the internet. Locally installed applications can provide benefits such as offline access, customization, and compatibility. A product advertising kiosk at a mall that is set up using a thin client without a hard drive and is running a web application managed and updated through an internet connection is not likely using a locally installed application delivery method, as it would need a hard drive or other storage device for the application.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Student Guide (Exam FC0-U61), Chapter 4: Operating System Fundamentals1
Which of the following is the largest storage capacity?
- A . 1PB
- B . 100TB
- C . 9,000GB
- D . 9,900MB
A
Explanation:
Comparing storage capacities requires understanding the magnitude of each unit. The hierarchy from smallest to largest is megabytes (MB), gigabytes (GB), terabytes (TB), and then petabytes (PB).
1 PB (petabyte) = 1,000 TB (terabytes)
100 TB = 100 terabytes
9,000 GB = 9 terabytes
9,900 MB = 0.0099 terabytes
Therefore, 1 petabyte (PB) is significantly larger than the other options listed.
Reference: Storage capacity units and conversions are covered in IT fundamental courses and materials, including those by CompTIA.
A small company has authorized an allowance for employees to purchase their own work computers. The administrator has noticed a sizable increase in network traffic following the arrival of the new computers.
Which of the following is the most likely reason?
- A . Unnecessary OEM software
- B . Lack of antivirus present
- C . Online gaming activity
- D . Firewalls are not configured
C
Explanation:
Online gaming activity is the most likely reason for the increase in network traffic because it consumes a lot of bandwidth and data. Online games often require constant communication with servers and other players, which can generate a lot of network traffic. Unnecessary OEM software, lack of antivirus, and firewalls are not configured are less likely to cause such a significant increase in network traffic, as they are either one-time or periodic processes that do not require as much data transfer as online gaming.
Reference: CompTIA IT Fundamentals FC0-U61 Certification Study Guide, page 101, section 2.4: “Online gaming can consume a lot of bandwidth and data.”
CompTIA ITF+ Practice Test, question 221: “Online gaming activity is the correct answer.”
A programmer uses DML to modify:
- A . files
- B . permissions
- C . data
- D . backups
C
Explanation:
A programmer uses DML to modify data in a database. DML stands for Data Manipulation Language, which is a subset of SQL (Structured Query Language) that is used to manipulate or change data in a database. DML includes commands or statements such as INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE, or MERGE, which can be used to add, modify, remove, or combine data in a table or structure within a database. DML can help a programmer to perform various operations or functions on the data in a database.
Reference: The Official CompTIA IT Fundamentals (ITF+) Study Guide (FC0-U61), page 143.