Practice Free CISA Exam Online Questions
When planning a review of IT governance, an IS auditor is MOST likely to:
- A . assess whether business process owner responsibilities are consistent.
- B . obtain information about the control framework adopted by management.
- C . examine audit committee minutes for IT-related controls.
- D . define key performance indicators (KPIs).
Which of the following should be the FIRST step in a data migration project?
- A . Reviewing decisions on how business processes should be conducted in the new system
- B . Completing data cleanup in the current database to eliminate inconsistencies
- C . Understanding the new system’s data structure
- D . Creating data conversion scripts
C
Explanation:
Explanation:
Data migration is the process of moving data from one system to another, which may involve changes in storage, database, or application. To perform a successful data migration, it is essential to understand the data structure of the new system, which defines how the data is organized, stored, and accessed. Understanding the new system’s data structure will help determine the following aspects of the data migration project:
The scope and requirements of the data migration, such as what data needs to be migrated, how much data needs to be migrated, and what are the quality and performance expectations.
The data mapping and transformation rules, such as how the data elements from the source system correspond to the data elements in the target system, and what transformations or conversions are needed to ensure compatibility and consistency.
The data validation and testing methods, such as how to verify that the migrated data is accurate, complete, and functional in the new system, and how to identify and resolve any errors or issues.
Therefore, understanding the new system’s data structure is a crucial first step in a data migration
project, as it lays the foundation for the subsequent steps of data extraction, transformation, loading, validation, and testing.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY basis on which audit objectives are established?
- A . Audit risk
- B . Consideration of risks
- C . Assessment of prior audits
- D . Business strategy
B
Explanation:
The primary basis on which audit objectives are established is the consideration of risks12. This involves identifying and assessing the risks that could prevent the organization from achieving its objectives12. The audit objectives are then designed to address these risks and provide assurance that the organization’s controls are effective in managing them12. While audit risk, assessment of prior audits, and business strategy are important factors in the audit process, they are secondary to the fundamental requirement of considering risks12.
References:
Objectives of Auditing – Primary and Secondary Objectives of Auditing | Auditing Management Notes Audit Objectives | Primary and Subsidiary Audit Objectives – EDUCBA
What is the PRIMARY purpose of performing a parallel run of a now system?
- A . To train the end users and supporting staff on the new system
- B . To verify the new system provides required business functionality
- C . To reduce the need for additional testing
- D . To validate the new system against its predecessor
D
Explanation:
The primary purpose of performing a parallel run of a new system is to validate the new system against its predecessor. A parallel run is a strategy for system changeover where a new system slowly assumes the roles of the older system while both systems operate simultaneously. This allows for comparison of the results and outputs of both systems to ensure that the new system is working correctly and reliably. A parallel run can also help identify and resolve any errors, discrepancies, or inconsistencies in the new system before the old system is discontinued.
The other options are not the primary purpose of performing a parallel run of a new system.
When auditing IT organizational structure, which of the following findings presents the GREATEST risk to an organization?
- A . Significantly higher turnover
- B . Lack of customer satisfaction surveys
- C . Aging staff
- D . Increase in the frequency of software upgrades
A
Explanation:
High employee turnover (A) poses the greatest risk because it leads to knowledge loss, operational disruptions, and potential security risks from departing employees. A constantly changing workforce can also impact compliance, training, and overall IT stability. Other options:
Lack of customer satisfaction surveys (B) is a business issue but not a critical IT risk.
Aging staff (C) may be a long-term risk but does not have an immediate impact.
Frequent software upgrades (D) can be beneficial if managed correctly.
Reference: ISACA CISA Review Manual, IT Governance and Management of IT
Which of the following BEST supports the effectiveness of a compliance program?
- A . Implementing an awareness plan regarding compliance regulation requirements
- B . Implementing a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool to track compliance to regulations
- C . Assessing and tracking all compliance audit findings
- D . Monitoring which compliance regulations apply to the organization
C
Explanation:
Assessing and tracking all compliance audit findings is the best way to support the effectiveness of a compliance program. This allows an organization to identify areas of non-compliance, take corrective action, and monitor improvements over time12. While implementing an awareness plan, using a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) tool, and monitoring applicable regulations can contribute to a compliance program, they do not provide the same level of continuous improvement and effectiveness as assessing and tracking audit findings.
An IS auditor is planning an audit of an organization’s risk management practices.
Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information about
risk appetite?
- A . Risk policies
- B . Risk assessments
- C . Prior audit reports
- D . Management assertion
A
Explanation:
Risk appetite is the amount and type of risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. Risk appetite reflects the organization’s risk culture, strategy, and tolerance, and guides the organization’s risk management practices. The most useful information about risk appetite can be obtained from the risk policies, which are the documents that define the organization’s risk management framework, principles, objectives, roles, responsibilities, and processes. Risk policies also establish the criteria and thresholds for identifying, assessing, prioritizing, mitigating, and monitoring risks, as well as the reporting and escalation mechanisms for risk issues. By reviewing the risk policies, an IS auditor can evaluate whether they are consistent, comprehensive, and aligned with the organization’s risk appetite and whether they provide clear guidance and direction for managing risks effectively.
The other options are not correct because they are either not the most useful or not relevant to risk appetite. Risk assessments are the processes of identifying, analyzing, and evaluating the risks that may affect the organization’s objectives. Risk assessments provide information about the current risk profile and exposure of the organization, but they do not indicate the organization’s risk appetite or preferences. Prior audit reports are the documents that summarize the findings, recommendations, and conclusions of previous audits. Prior audit reports may provide information about the past performance and issues of the organization’s risk management practices, but they do not reflect the organization’s risk appetite or expectations. Management assertion is a statement or declaration made by management about the accuracy, completeness, validity, or reliability of a certain fact or data. Management assertion may provide information about the management’s confidence or opinion on a specific risk or issue, but it does not represent the organization’s risk appetite or criteria.
Capacity management enables organizations to:
- A . forecast technology trends
- B . establish the capacity of network communication links
- C . identify the extent to which components need to be upgraded
- D . determine business transaction volumes.
C
Explanation:
Capacity management is a process that ensures that the IT resources of an organization are sufficient to meet the current and future demands of the business. Capacity management enables organizations to identify the extent to which components need to be upgraded, by monitoring and analyzing the performance, utilization, and availability of the IT components, such as servers, networks, storage, applications, etc., and identifying any bottlenecks, gaps, or risks that may affect the service level agreements (SLAs) or quality of service (QoS). Capacity management also helps organizations to plan and optimize the use of IT resources, by forecasting the future demand and growth of the business, and aligning the IT capacity with the business needs and objectives. Forecasting technology trends is a possible outcome of capacity management, but it is not its main purpose. Establishing the capacity of network communication links is a part of capacity management, but it is not its main goal. Determining business transaction volumes is an input for capacity management, but it is not its main objective.
An IS auditor is reviewing a machine learning model that predicts the likelihood that a user will watch a certain movie.
Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern to the auditor?
- A . When the model was tested with data drawn from a different population, the accuracy decreased.
- B . The data set for training the model was obtained from an unreliable source.
- C . An open-source programming language was used to develop the model.
- D . The model was tested with data drawn from the same population as the training data.
Which of the following is the MOST efficient solution for a multi-location healthcare organization that wants to be able to access patient data wherever patients present themselves
for care?
- A . Infrastructure as a Service (laaS) provider
- B . Software as a Service (SaaS) provider
- C . Network segmentation
- D . Dynamic localization
B
Explanation:
The answer B is correct because Software as a Service (SaaS) provider is the most efficient solution for a multi-location healthcare organization that wants to be able to access patient data wherever patients present themselves for care. SaaS is a cloud computing model that allows users to access software applications over the internet, without having to install, maintain, or update them on their own devices or servers. SaaS providers host and manage the software applications and the underlying infrastructure, and handle any issues such as security, availability, and performance.
SaaS can offer several benefits for a multi-location healthcare organization, such as:
Accessibility: SaaS applications can be accessed from any device and location that has an internet connection, which enables the healthcare organization to access patient data across different facilities and regions, and provide seamless and coordinated care to the patients.
Scalability: SaaS applications can scale up or down according to the demand and usage of the healthcare organization, which allows the organization to accommodate fluctuations in patient volume, data volume, or service requirements.
Cost-effectiveness: SaaS applications are usually offered on a subscription or pay-per-use basis, which reduces the upfront and ongoing costs of purchasing, installing, and maintaining software licenses, hardware, and IT staff.
Security: SaaS providers are responsible for ensuring the security and privacy of the software applications and the data they store, which can help the healthcare organization comply with the relevant regulations and standards, such as HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act) or GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation).
Some examples of SaaS providers that offer solutions for healthcare organizations are:
Epic: Epic is a leading provider of electronic health record (EHR) systems that enable healthcare organizations to store, manage, and share patient data across different settings and specialties. Epic also offers cloud-based solutions that allow healthcare organizations to access Epic’s software applications over the internet, without having to host them on their own servers.
Salesforce Health Cloud: Salesforce Health Cloud is a cloud-based platform that helps healthcare organizations connect with patients, providers, payers, and partners. Salesforce Health Cloud enables healthcare organizations to manage patient relationships, coordinate care teams, engage patients through personalized journeys, and leverage data and analytics to improve outcomes and efficiency.
DocuSign: DocuSign is a cloud-based platform that enables users to sign, send, and manage documents electronically. DocuSign can help healthcare organizations streamline workflows, reduce errors, and enhance compliance by automating the process of obtaining signatures for consent forms, contracts, prescriptions, referrals, and other documents.
The other options are not as efficient as option
B. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provider (option
A) is a cloud computing model that provides users with access to computing resources such as servers, storage, network, and operating systems over the internet. IaaS can offer some benefits such as flexibility, scalability, and cost-effectiveness for a multi-location healthcare organization, but it also requires more technical expertise and management from the organization than SaaS. The organization would still need to install, configure, update, and secure the software applications that run on the IaaS infrastructure. Network segmentation (option C) is a technique that divides a network into smaller subnetworks based on criteria such as function, location, or security level. Network segmentation can improve the performance, security, and manageability of a network by reducing congestion, isolating threats, and enforcing policies. However, network segmentation alone does not enable a multi-location healthcare organization to access patient data wherever patients present themselves for care. The organization would still need a software solution that can store, manage, and share patient data across different segments of the network. Dynamic localization (option D) is a process that adapts the content and functionality of a software application to suit the preferences and needs of users in different locations or regions. Dynamic localization can enhance the user experience and satisfaction by providing relevant information in local languages, currencies, formats, and regulations. However, dynamic localization does not address the core issue of accessing patient data wherever patients present themselves for care. The organization would still need a software solution that can store, manage, and share patient data across different locations or regions.
References:
Epic
Salesforce Health Cloud
DocuSign