Practice Free 312-38 Exam Online Questions
Question #41
The GMT enterprise is working on their internet and web usage policies. GMT would like to control internet bandwidth consumption by employees.
Which group of policies would this belong to?
- A . Enterprise Information Security Policy
- B . System Specific Security Policy
- C . Network Services Specific Security Policy
- D . Issue Specific Security Policy
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The control of internet bandwidth consumption by employees falls under the Network Services Specific Security Policy. This category of policy is designed to manage and secure the services that are provided over the network, which includes internet access and usage. It encompasses the rules and procedures that govern how network services, such as bandwidth, are allocated and used within an organization. By implementing such policies, GMT enterprise aims to ensure that the network’s bandwidth is utilized effectively and in alignment with the company’s operational requirements and objectives.
Reference: The answer is derived from the understanding of network security policies as outlined in the Certified Network Defender (CND) course by EC-Council, which emphasizes the importance of specific policies for managing network services and resources.
C
Explanation:
The control of internet bandwidth consumption by employees falls under the Network Services Specific Security Policy. This category of policy is designed to manage and secure the services that are provided over the network, which includes internet access and usage. It encompasses the rules and procedures that govern how network services, such as bandwidth, are allocated and used within an organization. By implementing such policies, GMT enterprise aims to ensure that the network’s bandwidth is utilized effectively and in alignment with the company’s operational requirements and objectives.
Reference: The answer is derived from the understanding of network security policies as outlined in the Certified Network Defender (CND) course by EC-Council, which emphasizes the importance of specific policies for managing network services and resources.
Question #42
On which of the following OSI layers does the Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) work?
- A . Application
- B . Data Link
- C . Network
- D . Transport
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) is an encryption program that provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for data communication. PGP operates at the Application layer of the OSI model. This is because it is used to encrypt and decrypt texts, emails, files, directories, and whole disk partitions and to enhance the security of email communications. PGP provides these services by utilizing cryptographic privacy and authentication through a hybrid approach that combines symmetric and asymmetric encryption, which is implemented at the Application layer.
Reference: The explanation aligns with the functionalities of PGP as described in the context of the OSI model and is consistent with the Certified Network Defender (CND) course material. For further details, please refer to the official CND study guide and documents.
A
Explanation:
Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) is an encryption program that provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication for data communication. PGP operates at the Application layer of the OSI model. This is because it is used to encrypt and decrypt texts, emails, files, directories, and whole disk partitions and to enhance the security of email communications. PGP provides these services by utilizing cryptographic privacy and authentication through a hybrid approach that combines symmetric and asymmetric encryption, which is implemented at the Application layer.
Reference: The explanation aligns with the functionalities of PGP as described in the context of the OSI model and is consistent with the Certified Network Defender (CND) course material. For further details, please refer to the official CND study guide and documents.
Question #43
Docker provides Platforms-a-Service (PaaS) through __________ and deliver*; containerized software packages
- A . Storage-level virtualization
- B . Network level virtualization
- C . OS level visualization
- D . Server-level visualization
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Docker provides Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) through OS-level virtualization. This form of virtualization allows for the deployment of software in packages called containers. Containers are isolated from each other and bundle their own software, libraries, and configuration files; they can communicate with each other through well-defined channels. OS-level virtualization is lightweight compared to other forms of virtualization because it does not require a hypervisor to create virtual machines. Instead, the Docker Engine enables the containers to run directly within the host machine’s operating system but with separate namespaces, which is why it’s considered OS-level.
Reference: The information provided is consistent with the Certified Network Defender (CND) course’s objectives regarding understanding different types of virtualization and their purposes in network security. Docker’s use of OS-level virtualization is a fundamental concept covered in the study materials12.
C
Explanation:
Docker provides Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) through OS-level virtualization. This form of virtualization allows for the deployment of software in packages called containers. Containers are isolated from each other and bundle their own software, libraries, and configuration files; they can communicate with each other through well-defined channels. OS-level virtualization is lightweight compared to other forms of virtualization because it does not require a hypervisor to create virtual machines. Instead, the Docker Engine enables the containers to run directly within the host machine’s operating system but with separate namespaces, which is why it’s considered OS-level.
Reference: The information provided is consistent with the Certified Network Defender (CND) course’s objectives regarding understanding different types of virtualization and their purposes in network security. Docker’s use of OS-level virtualization is a fundamental concept covered in the study materials12.
Question #44
Liza was told by her network administrator that they will be implementing IPsec VPN tunnels to connect the branch locations to the main office.
What layer of the OSI model do IPsec tunnels function on?
- A . The data link layer
- B . The session layer
- C . The network layer
- D . The application and physical layers
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
IPsec VPN tunnels function at the network layer of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for the logical transmission of data across a network and includes routing through different network paths. IPsec enhances the security at this layer by providing features such as data integrity, encryption, and authentication. These features are crucial for establishing a secure and encrypted connection across the internet, which is essential for VPN tunnels that connect different network segments, such as branch locations to a main office.
Reference: The role of IPsec at the network layer is well-established in network security literature and is consistent with the Certified Network Defender (CND) program’s teachings on secure network architecture12. The network layer’s involvement in routing and data transmission makes it the appropriate layer for IPsec’s operation, aligning with the CND’s emphasis on understanding and implementing network security protocols34.
C
Explanation:
IPsec VPN tunnels function at the network layer of the OSI model. This layer is responsible for the logical transmission of data across a network and includes routing through different network paths. IPsec enhances the security at this layer by providing features such as data integrity, encryption, and authentication. These features are crucial for establishing a secure and encrypted connection across the internet, which is essential for VPN tunnels that connect different network segments, such as branch locations to a main office.
Reference: The role of IPsec at the network layer is well-established in network security literature and is consistent with the Certified Network Defender (CND) program’s teachings on secure network architecture12. The network layer’s involvement in routing and data transmission makes it the appropriate layer for IPsec’s operation, aligning with the CND’s emphasis on understanding and implementing network security protocols34.
Question #45
A VPN Concentrator acts as a bidirectional tunnel endpoint among host machines.
What are the other f unction(s) of the device? (Select all that apply)
- A . Provides access memory, achieving high efficiency
- B . Assigns user addresses
- C . Enables input/output (I/O) operations
- D . Manages security keys
Correct Answer: B,D
B,D
Explanation:
A VPN Concentrator is a network device designed to manage VPN traffic for multiple users. It acts as a bidirectional tunnel endpoint among host machines and has several key functions. Firstly, it assigns user addresses to enable individual identification within the network. Secondly, it manages security keys which are essential for the encryption and decryption processes, ensuring secure data transmission. The concentrator is responsible for authenticating remote users and granting access to the network after verifying their credentials. It also handles the heavy lifting of encryption and decryption, maintaining the integrity and confidentiality of data traffic12.
Reference: The Palo Alto Networks article on “What Is a VPN Concentrator?” provides a detailed explanation of how a VPN Concentrator works, including its role in managing VPN connections and ensuring secure remote access1.
Privacy Affairs’ article on “What is a VPN Concentrator and How does it Work?” discusses the functions of a VPN Concentrator, including user authentication and management of cryptographic keys2.
B,D
Explanation:
A VPN Concentrator is a network device designed to manage VPN traffic for multiple users. It acts as a bidirectional tunnel endpoint among host machines and has several key functions. Firstly, it assigns user addresses to enable individual identification within the network. Secondly, it manages security keys which are essential for the encryption and decryption processes, ensuring secure data transmission. The concentrator is responsible for authenticating remote users and granting access to the network after verifying their credentials. It also handles the heavy lifting of encryption and decryption, maintaining the integrity and confidentiality of data traffic12.
Reference: The Palo Alto Networks article on “What Is a VPN Concentrator?” provides a detailed explanation of how a VPN Concentrator works, including its role in managing VPN connections and ensuring secure remote access1.
Privacy Affairs’ article on “What is a VPN Concentrator and How does it Work?” discusses the functions of a VPN Concentrator, including user authentication and management of cryptographic keys2.
Question #46
Which of the following commands can be used to disable unwanted services on Debian, Ubuntu and other Debian-based Linux distributions?
- A . # chkconfig [service name]off
- B . # chkconfig [service name] Cdel
- C . # service [service name] stop
- D . # update-rc.d -f [service name] remove
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
In Debian-based Linux distributions, such as Ubuntu, the update-rc.d command is used to add and remove services from the startup sequence. To disable a service, the -f option (which stands for ‘force’) is used along with the remove parameter to remove the service from the startup sequence. This prevents the service from starting automatically during the system boot.
Reference: The use of update-rc.d for disabling services is documented in various Linux guides and resources. For example, Tecmint’s guide on “How to Stop and Disable Unwanted Services from Linux
System” provides a practical example of using update-rc.d -f apache2 remove to disable the Apache service at system startup1. Additionally, the Linux Consultant website also mentions the use of systemctl followed by the disable argument for fully disabling services2.
D
Explanation:
In Debian-based Linux distributions, such as Ubuntu, the update-rc.d command is used to add and remove services from the startup sequence. To disable a service, the -f option (which stands for ‘force’) is used along with the remove parameter to remove the service from the startup sequence. This prevents the service from starting automatically during the system boot.
Reference: The use of update-rc.d for disabling services is documented in various Linux guides and resources. For example, Tecmint’s guide on “How to Stop and Disable Unwanted Services from Linux
System” provides a practical example of using update-rc.d -f apache2 remove to disable the Apache service at system startup1. Additionally, the Linux Consultant website also mentions the use of systemctl followed by the disable argument for fully disabling services2.
Question #47
Which of the following standards does a cloud service provider has to comply with, to protect the privacy of its customer’s personal information?
- A . ISO/IEC 27018
- B . ISO/IEC 27019
- C . ISO/IEC 27020
- D . ISO/IEC 27021
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27018 is a code of practice for cloud service providers that handle personally identifiable information (PII). It provides a framework for protecting the privacy of PII in the cloud, consistent with the privacy principles in ISO/IEC 29100 for the public cloud computing environment. This standard is particularly relevant for cloud service providers needing to demonstrate they have implemented effective privacy controls to protect their customers’ data. The adoption of ISO/IEC 27018 by a cloud service provider is a strong indication of compliance with privacy laws and regulations, ensuring the protection of personal information in the cloud123.
Reference: ISO/IEC 27018 overview and compliance information as provided by Microsoft Learn1.
Details on ISO/IEC 27018 compliance by Google Cloud2.
General information about ISO 27018 for cloud providers from Schellman3.
EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) course content4.
A
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27018 is a code of practice for cloud service providers that handle personally identifiable information (PII). It provides a framework for protecting the privacy of PII in the cloud, consistent with the privacy principles in ISO/IEC 29100 for the public cloud computing environment. This standard is particularly relevant for cloud service providers needing to demonstrate they have implemented effective privacy controls to protect their customers’ data. The adoption of ISO/IEC 27018 by a cloud service provider is a strong indication of compliance with privacy laws and regulations, ensuring the protection of personal information in the cloud123.
Reference: ISO/IEC 27018 overview and compliance information as provided by Microsoft Learn1.
Details on ISO/IEC 27018 compliance by Google Cloud2.
General information about ISO 27018 for cloud providers from Schellman3.
EC-Council’s Certified Network Defender (CND) course content4.
Question #48
Identify the minimum number of drives required to setup RAID level 5.
- A . Multiple
- B . 3
- C . 4
- D . 2
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
RAID level 5 is a robust storage solution that provides fault tolerance and improved read performance. It requires a minimum of three drives to function. This setup allows for data and parity information to be striped across all drives in the array. If one drive fails, the system can use the parity information to reconstruct the lost data, ensuring no data loss occurs. This level of RAID is beneficial for systems where data availability and security are critical, without sacrificing too much storage capacity for parity.
Reference: The minimum number of drives required for RAID level 5 is confirmed by various authoritative sources on RAID technology and storage solutions1234.
B
Explanation:
RAID level 5 is a robust storage solution that provides fault tolerance and improved read performance. It requires a minimum of three drives to function. This setup allows for data and parity information to be striped across all drives in the array. If one drive fails, the system can use the parity information to reconstruct the lost data, ensuring no data loss occurs. This level of RAID is beneficial for systems where data availability and security are critical, without sacrificing too much storage capacity for parity.
Reference: The minimum number of drives required for RAID level 5 is confirmed by various authoritative sources on RAID technology and storage solutions1234.
Question #49
Based on which of the following registry key, the Windows Event log audit configurations are recorded?
- A . HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINESYSTEMServicesEventLog < ErrDev >
- B . HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINESYSTEMCurrentControlSetEventLog < EntAppsvc >
- C . HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINECurrentControlSetServicesEventLog< ESENT >
- D . HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINESYSTEMCurrentControlSetServicesEventLog < Event Log >
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
The Windows Event Log audit configurations are recorded in the registry key path HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINESYSTEMCurrentControlSetServicesEventLog. This key contains subkeys for each of the event logs on the system, including the Application, Security, and System logs, among others. Each of these subkeys can contain a number of values that determine how events are logged, which can include the maximum size of the log, the retention method, and the file path where the log is stored. Audit policies can be configured to determine which events are recorded in these logs, and the configurations are reflected in the registry under this key.
Reference: The information provided is based on standard Windows operating system behavior and aligns with the Certified Network Defender (CND) curriculum, which includes understanding and managing Windows logging and auditing settings as part of network security monitoring and defense strategies.
D
Explanation:
The Windows Event Log audit configurations are recorded in the registry key path HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINESYSTEMCurrentControlSetServicesEventLog. This key contains subkeys for each of the event logs on the system, including the Application, Security, and System logs, among others. Each of these subkeys can contain a number of values that determine how events are logged, which can include the maximum size of the log, the retention method, and the file path where the log is stored. Audit policies can be configured to determine which events are recorded in these logs, and the configurations are reflected in the registry under this key.
Reference: The information provided is based on standard Windows operating system behavior and aligns with the Certified Network Defender (CND) curriculum, which includes understanding and managing Windows logging and auditing settings as part of network security monitoring and defense strategies.
Question #50
Which of the following data security technology can ensure information protection by obscuring specific areas of information?
- A . Data encryption
- B . Data hashing
- C . Data masking
- D . Data retention
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
Data masking, also known as data obfuscation, is the process of hiding original data with modified content (characters or other data). This technique is used to protect sensitive information while maintaining a functional substitute for occasions when the real data is not required. For example, in a test database environment, data masking can be used to create a version of the data that is safe for developers to use without exposing sensitive information. Unlike encryption, which can be reversed with the correct key, data masking is meant to be non-reversible and maintains the format of the data so that it can be used without decryption.
Reference: The explanation provided aligns with the objectives and documents of the Certified Network Defender (CND) course, which emphasizes the importance of protecting information by obscuring specific areas that contain sensitive data. The reference to data masking as a means to ensure information protection is supported by industry sources123.
C
Explanation:
Data masking, also known as data obfuscation, is the process of hiding original data with modified content (characters or other data). This technique is used to protect sensitive information while maintaining a functional substitute for occasions when the real data is not required. For example, in a test database environment, data masking can be used to create a version of the data that is safe for developers to use without exposing sensitive information. Unlike encryption, which can be reversed with the correct key, data masking is meant to be non-reversible and maintains the format of the data so that it can be used without decryption.
Reference: The explanation provided aligns with the objectives and documents of the Certified Network Defender (CND) course, which emphasizes the importance of protecting information by obscuring specific areas that contain sensitive data. The reference to data masking as a means to ensure information protection is supported by industry sources123.