Practice Free 250-580 Exam Online Questions
Question #31
What does an end-user receive when an administrator utilizes the Invite User feature to distribute the SES client?
- A . An email with the SES_setup.zip file attached
- B . An email with a link to register on the ICDm user portal
- C . An email with a link to directly download the SES client
- D . An email with a link to a KB article explaining how to install the SES Agent
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
When an administrator uses the "Invite User" feature to distribute the Symantec Endpoint Security (SES) client, the end-user receives a direct link via email to download the SES client. This email typically includes:
Download Link: The email provides a secure link that directs the user to download the SES client installer directly from Symantec’s servers or a managed distribution location.
Installation Instructions: Clear instructions are often included to assist the end-user with installing the SES client on their device.
User Access Simplification: This approach streamlines the installation process by reducing the steps required for the user, making it convenient and ensuring they receive the correct client version. This method enhances security and user convenience, as the SES client download is directly verified by the system, ensuring that the correct version is deployed.
C
Explanation:
When an administrator uses the "Invite User" feature to distribute the Symantec Endpoint Security (SES) client, the end-user receives a direct link via email to download the SES client. This email typically includes:
Download Link: The email provides a secure link that directs the user to download the SES client installer directly from Symantec’s servers or a managed distribution location.
Installation Instructions: Clear instructions are often included to assist the end-user with installing the SES client on their device.
User Access Simplification: This approach streamlines the installation process by reducing the steps required for the user, making it convenient and ensuring they receive the correct client version. This method enhances security and user convenience, as the SES client download is directly verified by the system, ensuring that the correct version is deployed.
Question #32
An Incident Responder has determined that an endpoint is compromised by a malicious threat.
What SEDR feature would be utilized first to contain the threat?
- A . File Deletion
- B . Incident Manager
- C . Isolation
- D . Endpoint Activity Recorder
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
When an Incident Responder determines that an endpoint is compromised, the first action to contain the threat is to use the Isolation feature in Symantec Endpoint Detection and Response (SEDR). Isolation effectively disconnects the affected endpoint from the network, thereby preventing the malicious threat from communicating with other systems or spreading within the network environment. This feature enables the responder to contain the threat swiftly, allowing further investigation and remediation steps to be conducted without risk of lateral movement by the attacker.
C
Explanation:
When an Incident Responder determines that an endpoint is compromised, the first action to contain the threat is to use the Isolation feature in Symantec Endpoint Detection and Response (SEDR). Isolation effectively disconnects the affected endpoint from the network, thereby preventing the malicious threat from communicating with other systems or spreading within the network environment. This feature enables the responder to contain the threat swiftly, allowing further investigation and remediation steps to be conducted without risk of lateral movement by the attacker.
Question #33
What protection technology should an administrator enable to prevent double executable file names of ransomware variants like Cryptolocker from running?
- A . Download Insight
- B . Intrusion Prevention System
- C . SONAR
- D . Memory Exploit Mitigation
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
To prevent ransomware variants, such as Cryptolocker, from executing with double executable file names, an administrator should enable SONAR (Symantec Online Network for Advanced Response). SONAR detects and blocks suspicious behaviors based on file characteristics and real-time monitoring, which is effective in identifying malicious patterns associated with ransomware. By analyzing unusual behaviors, such as double executable file names, SONAR provides proactive protection against ransomware threats before they can cause harm to the system.
C
Explanation:
To prevent ransomware variants, such as Cryptolocker, from executing with double executable file names, an administrator should enable SONAR (Symantec Online Network for Advanced Response). SONAR detects and blocks suspicious behaviors based on file characteristics and real-time monitoring, which is effective in identifying malicious patterns associated with ransomware. By analyzing unusual behaviors, such as double executable file names, SONAR provides proactive protection against ransomware threats before they can cause harm to the system.
Question #34
Which Endpoint Setting should an administrator utilize to locate unmanaged endpoints on a network subnet?
- A . Device Discovery
- B . Endpoint Enrollment
- C . Discover and Deploy
- D . Discover Endpoints
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
To locate unmanaged endpoints within a specific network subnet, an administrator should utilize the Discover and Deploy setting. This feature scans the network for endpoints without security management, enabling administrators to identify and initiate the deployment of Symantec Endpoint Protection agents on unmanaged devices. This proactive approach ensures comprehensive coverage across the network, allowing for efficient detection and management of all endpoints within the organization.
C
Explanation:
To locate unmanaged endpoints within a specific network subnet, an administrator should utilize the Discover and Deploy setting. This feature scans the network for endpoints without security management, enabling administrators to identify and initiate the deployment of Symantec Endpoint Protection agents on unmanaged devices. This proactive approach ensures comprehensive coverage across the network, allowing for efficient detection and management of all endpoints within the organization.
Question #35
What is the maximum number of SEPMs a single Management Platform is able to connect to?
- A . 50
- B . 10
- C . 5,000
- D . 500
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The maximum number of Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers (SEPMs) that a single Management Platform can connect to is 50. This limit ensures that the management platform can handle communication, policy distribution, and reporting across connected SEPMs without overloading the system.
Significance of the 50 SEPM Limit:
This limitation is in place to ensure stable performance and effective management, especially in large-scale deployments where multiple SEPMs are required to support extensive environments.
Relevance in Large Enterprises:
Organizations managing endpoints across multiple locations often use several SEPMs, and the platform’s 50-manager limit allows scalability while maintaining centralized management.
Reference: The SEPM connection limits are documented as part of the architecture specifications for Symantec Endpoint Protection.
A
Explanation:
The maximum number of Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers (SEPMs) that a single Management Platform can connect to is 50. This limit ensures that the management platform can handle communication, policy distribution, and reporting across connected SEPMs without overloading the system.
Significance of the 50 SEPM Limit:
This limitation is in place to ensure stable performance and effective management, especially in large-scale deployments where multiple SEPMs are required to support extensive environments.
Relevance in Large Enterprises:
Organizations managing endpoints across multiple locations often use several SEPMs, and the platform’s 50-manager limit allows scalability while maintaining centralized management.
Reference: The SEPM connection limits are documented as part of the architecture specifications for Symantec Endpoint Protection.
Question #36
Why is it important for an Incident Responder to search for suspicious registry and system file changes when threat hunting?
- A . Attackers can establish persistence within an infected host
- B . Attackers can trick users into giving up their enterprise credentials
- C . Attackers may shadow valid sessions and inject hidden actions
- D . Attackers may cause unusual DNS requests
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
When threat hunting, it is important for an Incident Responder to search for suspicious registry and system file changes because attackers can use these modifications to establish persistence within an infected host. Persistence allows attackers to maintain control over the compromised system, even after reboots or security updates.
Persistence via Registry and System Files:
Attackers often modify registry keys or add malicious files in system directories to ensure their malware automatically starts with the system.
By establishing persistence, attackers can retain their foothold in the system, making it more difficult for security teams to fully eradicate the threat.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
While attackers may attempt to trick users (Option B), shadow sessions (Option C), or cause DNS anomalies (Option D), registry and system file changes are primarily associated with persistence techniques.
Reference: Checking for persistence mechanisms is a critical part of threat hunting, as these often involve registry and system file modifications.
A
Explanation:
When threat hunting, it is important for an Incident Responder to search for suspicious registry and system file changes because attackers can use these modifications to establish persistence within an infected host. Persistence allows attackers to maintain control over the compromised system, even after reboots or security updates.
Persistence via Registry and System Files:
Attackers often modify registry keys or add malicious files in system directories to ensure their malware automatically starts with the system.
By establishing persistence, attackers can retain their foothold in the system, making it more difficult for security teams to fully eradicate the threat.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
While attackers may attempt to trick users (Option B), shadow sessions (Option C), or cause DNS anomalies (Option D), registry and system file changes are primarily associated with persistence techniques.
Reference: Checking for persistence mechanisms is a critical part of threat hunting, as these often involve registry and system file modifications.
Question #37
Which two (2) scan range options are available to an administrator for locating unmanaged endpoints? (Select two)
- A . Entire Network
- B . IP range within the network
- C . Subnet Range
- D . IP range within the subnet
- E . Entire Subnet
Correct Answer: BC
BC
Explanation:
For locating unmanaged endpoints, administrators in Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) can use the following scan range options:
IP Range within the Network: This option allows scanning of specific IP address ranges to locate devices that may not have SEP installed.
Subnet Range: Administrators can scan within specific subnets, providing a focused range to detect unmanaged endpoints in targeted sections of the network.
These options enable precise scans, helping administrators efficiently identify and manage unmanaged devices.
BC
Explanation:
For locating unmanaged endpoints, administrators in Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) can use the following scan range options:
IP Range within the Network: This option allows scanning of specific IP address ranges to locate devices that may not have SEP installed.
Subnet Range: Administrators can scan within specific subnets, providing a focused range to detect unmanaged endpoints in targeted sections of the network.
These options enable precise scans, helping administrators efficiently identify and manage unmanaged devices.
Question #38
What happens when an administrator adds a file to the deny list?
- A . The file is assigned to a chosen Deny List policy
- B . The file is assigned to the Deny List task list
- C . The file is automatically quarantined
- D . The file is assigned to the default Deny List policy
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
When an administrator adds a file to the deny list in Symantec Endpoint Protection, the file is automatically assigned to the default Deny List policy. This action results in the following: Immediate Blocking: The file is blocked from executing on any endpoint where the Deny List policy is enforced, effectively preventing the file from causing harm.
Consistent Enforcement: Using the default Deny List policy ensures that the file is denied access across all relevant endpoints without the need for additional customization.
Centralized Management: Administrators can manage and review the default Deny List policy within SEPM, providing an efficient method for handling potentially harmful files across the network. This default behavior ensures swift response to threats by leveraging a centralized deny list policy.
D
Explanation:
When an administrator adds a file to the deny list in Symantec Endpoint Protection, the file is automatically assigned to the default Deny List policy. This action results in the following: Immediate Blocking: The file is blocked from executing on any endpoint where the Deny List policy is enforced, effectively preventing the file from causing harm.
Consistent Enforcement: Using the default Deny List policy ensures that the file is denied access across all relevant endpoints without the need for additional customization.
Centralized Management: Administrators can manage and review the default Deny List policy within SEPM, providing an efficient method for handling potentially harmful files across the network. This default behavior ensures swift response to threats by leveraging a centralized deny list policy.
Question #39
On which platform is LiveShell available?
- A . Windows
- B . All
- C . Linux
- D . Mac
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
LiveShell is a Symantec tool available across multiple platforms, including Windows, Linux, and Mac.
It enables administrators to open a live command-line shell on endpoints, providing remote troubleshooting and response capabilities regardless of the operating system.
Cross-Platform Availability:
LiveShell’s cross-platform support ensures that administrators can respond to incidents, troubleshoot issues, and run commands on endpoints running Windows, Linux, or macOS.
Use Cases for LiveShell:
This tool is useful for incident response teams needing quick access to endpoints for commands or scripts, which helps to manage and mitigate threats across diverse environments.
Reference: LiveShell’s availability on all major platforms enhances Symantec’s endpoint management and response capabilities across heterogeneous environments.
B
Explanation:
LiveShell is a Symantec tool available across multiple platforms, including Windows, Linux, and Mac.
It enables administrators to open a live command-line shell on endpoints, providing remote troubleshooting and response capabilities regardless of the operating system.
Cross-Platform Availability:
LiveShell’s cross-platform support ensures that administrators can respond to incidents, troubleshoot issues, and run commands on endpoints running Windows, Linux, or macOS.
Use Cases for LiveShell:
This tool is useful for incident response teams needing quick access to endpoints for commands or scripts, which helps to manage and mitigate threats across diverse environments.
Reference: LiveShell’s availability on all major platforms enhances Symantec’s endpoint management and response capabilities across heterogeneous environments.
Question #40
Which two (2) considerations must an administrator make when enabling Application Learning in an environment? (Select two.)
- A . Application Learning can generate increased false positives.
- B . Application Learning should be deployed on a small group of systems in the enterprise.
- C . Application Learning can generate significant CPU or memory use on a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.
- D . Application Learning requires a file fingerprint list to be created in advance.
- E . Application Learning is dependent on Insight.
Correct Answer: AB
AB
Explanation:
When enabling Application Learning in Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP), an administrator should consider the following:
Increased False Positives: Application Learning may lead to increased false positives, as it identifies unfamiliar or rare applications that might not necessarily pose a threat.
Pilot Deployment Recommended: To mitigate potential disruptions, Application Learning should initially be deployed on a small subset of systems. This approach allows administrators to observe its impact, refine policies, and control the learning data gathered before extending it across the entire enterprise.
These considerations help manage the resource impact and ensure the accuracy of Application Learning.
AB
Explanation:
When enabling Application Learning in Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP), an administrator should consider the following:
Increased False Positives: Application Learning may lead to increased false positives, as it identifies unfamiliar or rare applications that might not necessarily pose a threat.
Pilot Deployment Recommended: To mitigate potential disruptions, Application Learning should initially be deployed on a small subset of systems. This approach allows administrators to observe its impact, refine policies, and control the learning data gathered before extending it across the entire enterprise.
These considerations help manage the resource impact and ensure the accuracy of Application Learning.