Practice Free 250-580 Exam Online Questions
Question #11
Which technique randomizes the memory address map with Memory Exploit Mitigation?
- A . ForceDEP
- B . SEHOP
- C . ASLR
- D . ROPHEAP
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
ASLR (Address Space Layout Randomization) is a security technique used in Memory Exploit Mitigation that randomizes the memory address map for processes. By placing key data areas at random locations in memory, ASLR makes it more difficult for attackers to predict the locations of specific functions or buffers, thus preventing exploitation techniques that rely on fixed memory addresses.
How ASLR Enhances Security:
ASLR rearranges the location of executable code, heap, stack, and libraries each time a program is run, thwarting attacks that depend on known memory locations.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
ForceDEP (Option A) enforces Data Execution Prevention but does not randomize addresses. SEHOP (Option B) mitigates exploits by protecting exception handling but does not involve address randomization.
ROPHEAP (Option D) refers to Return-Oriented Programming attacks rather than a mitigation technique.
Reference: ASLR is a widely used method in Memory Exploit Mitigation, adding randomness to memory locations to reduce vulnerability to exploitation.
C
Explanation:
ASLR (Address Space Layout Randomization) is a security technique used in Memory Exploit Mitigation that randomizes the memory address map for processes. By placing key data areas at random locations in memory, ASLR makes it more difficult for attackers to predict the locations of specific functions or buffers, thus preventing exploitation techniques that rely on fixed memory addresses.
How ASLR Enhances Security:
ASLR rearranges the location of executable code, heap, stack, and libraries each time a program is run, thwarting attacks that depend on known memory locations.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
ForceDEP (Option A) enforces Data Execution Prevention but does not randomize addresses. SEHOP (Option B) mitigates exploits by protecting exception handling but does not involve address randomization.
ROPHEAP (Option D) refers to Return-Oriented Programming attacks rather than a mitigation technique.
Reference: ASLR is a widely used method in Memory Exploit Mitigation, adding randomness to memory locations to reduce vulnerability to exploitation.
Question #12
A company allows users to create firewall rules. During the course of business, users are accidentally adding rules that block a custom internal application.
Which steps should the Symantec Endpoint Protection administrator take to prevent users from blocking the custom application?
- A . Create an Allow Firewall rule for the application and place it at the bottom of the firewall rules below the blue line
- B . Create an Allow Firewall rule for the application and place it at the bottom of the firewall rules above the blue line
- C . Create an Allow All Firewall rule for the fingerprint of the file and place it at the bottom of the firewall rules above the blue line
- D . Create an Allow for the network adapter type used by the application and place it at the top of the firewall rules below the blue line
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
To ensure that users cannot inadvertently block a custom internal application, the Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) administrator should create an Allow Firewall rule for the application and place it at the bottom of the firewall rules, above the blue line.
Explanation of Firewall Rule Placement:
Placing the allow rule above the blue line ensures it remains prioritized in SEP’s firewall policy, meaning that user-created rules cannot override it.
This setup guarantees that the internal application is allowed through the firewall without disruption, while users can still create other firewall rules without affecting this critical application.
Why Other Options Are Less Effective:
Placing the rule below the blue line (Option A) would allow user-created rules to override it. Creating an Allow All rule (Option C) could inadvertently allow other unnecessary traffic, which is a security risk.
Setting a rule based on network adapter type (Option D) does not guarantee that it will cover all instances of the custom application.
Reference: In SEP firewall configurations, placing critical allow rules above the blue line protects essential applications from being unintentionally blocked.
B
Explanation:
To ensure that users cannot inadvertently block a custom internal application, the Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) administrator should create an Allow Firewall rule for the application and place it at the bottom of the firewall rules, above the blue line.
Explanation of Firewall Rule Placement:
Placing the allow rule above the blue line ensures it remains prioritized in SEP’s firewall policy, meaning that user-created rules cannot override it.
This setup guarantees that the internal application is allowed through the firewall without disruption, while users can still create other firewall rules without affecting this critical application.
Why Other Options Are Less Effective:
Placing the rule below the blue line (Option A) would allow user-created rules to override it. Creating an Allow All rule (Option C) could inadvertently allow other unnecessary traffic, which is a security risk.
Setting a rule based on network adapter type (Option D) does not guarantee that it will cover all instances of the custom application.
Reference: In SEP firewall configurations, placing critical allow rules above the blue line protects essential applications from being unintentionally blocked.
Question #13
A company uses a remote administration tool that is detected as Hacktool.KeyLoggPro and quarantined by Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP).
Which step can an administrator perform to continue using the remote administration tool without detection by SEP?
- A . Create a Tamper Protect exception for the tool
- B . Create an Application to Monitor exception for the tool
- C . Create a Known Risk exception for the tool
- D . Create a SONAR exception for the tool
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
To allow the use of a remote administration tool detected as Hacktool.KeyLoggPro without interference from SEP, the administrator should create a Known Risk exception for the tool. This exception type allows specific files or applications to bypass detection, thereby avoiding quarantine or blocking actions.
Steps to Create a Known Risk Exception:
In the SEP management console, navigate to Policies > Exceptions.
Choose to create a Known Risk exception and specify the tool’s executable file or file path to prevent SEP from identifying it as a threat.
Why Known Risk Exception is Appropriate:
This type of exception is designed for tools that SEP detects as potentially risky (like hacktools or keyloggers) but are authorized for legitimate use by the organization.
Creating this exception allows the tool to operate without being flagged or quarantined.
Reasons Other Options Are Less Effective:
Tamper Protect exceptions only prevent SEP from being tampered with by other applications.
Application to Monitor exceptions monitor applications without preventing quarantine actions.
SONAR exceptions are specific to behavior-based detections, not risk definitions.
Reference: Creating Known Risk exceptions is the recommended approach when allowing specific tools in SEP that may otherwise be detected as threats.
C
Explanation:
To allow the use of a remote administration tool detected as Hacktool.KeyLoggPro without interference from SEP, the administrator should create a Known Risk exception for the tool. This exception type allows specific files or applications to bypass detection, thereby avoiding quarantine or blocking actions.
Steps to Create a Known Risk Exception:
In the SEP management console, navigate to Policies > Exceptions.
Choose to create a Known Risk exception and specify the tool’s executable file or file path to prevent SEP from identifying it as a threat.
Why Known Risk Exception is Appropriate:
This type of exception is designed for tools that SEP detects as potentially risky (like hacktools or keyloggers) but are authorized for legitimate use by the organization.
Creating this exception allows the tool to operate without being flagged or quarantined.
Reasons Other Options Are Less Effective:
Tamper Protect exceptions only prevent SEP from being tampered with by other applications.
Application to Monitor exceptions monitor applications without preventing quarantine actions.
SONAR exceptions are specific to behavior-based detections, not risk definitions.
Reference: Creating Known Risk exceptions is the recommended approach when allowing specific tools in SEP that may otherwise be detected as threats.
Question #14
A Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) administrator receives multiple reports that machines are experiencing performance issues. The administrator discovers that the reports happen at about the same time as the scheduled LiveUpdate.
Which setting should the SEP administrator configure to minimize I/O when LiveUpdate occurs?
- A . Change the LiveUpdate schedule
- B . Change the Administrator-defined scan schedule
- C . Disable Allow user-defined scans to run when the scan author is logged off
- D . Disable Run an Active Scan when new definitions arrive
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
To minimize I/O impact when LiveUpdate occurs, the LiveUpdate schedule should be adjusted.
Here’s why this solution is effective:
Reduced System Impact During Peak Hours: By scheduling LiveUpdate during off-peak times, system resources are freed up during high-usage periods, reducing the likelihood of performance issues. Efficient Resource Allocation: Adjusting the schedule allows LiveUpdate to run at times when endpoint resources are less likely to be needed for user activities, minimizing its impact on performance.
Maintaining Regular Updates: This approach ensures that updates still occur regularly without impacting endpoint performance during work hours.
This method is optimal for managing resource load and maintaining smooth performance during scheduled updates.
A
Explanation:
To minimize I/O impact when LiveUpdate occurs, the LiveUpdate schedule should be adjusted.
Here’s why this solution is effective:
Reduced System Impact During Peak Hours: By scheduling LiveUpdate during off-peak times, system resources are freed up during high-usage periods, reducing the likelihood of performance issues. Efficient Resource Allocation: Adjusting the schedule allows LiveUpdate to run at times when endpoint resources are less likely to be needed for user activities, minimizing its impact on performance.
Maintaining Regular Updates: This approach ensures that updates still occur regularly without impacting endpoint performance during work hours.
This method is optimal for managing resource load and maintaining smooth performance during scheduled updates.
Question #15
Which security control performs a cloud lookup on files downloaded during the Initial Access phase?
- A . Exploit Protection
- B . Auto-Protect
- C . Intrusion Prevention
- D . Antimalware
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Auto-Protect in Symantec Endpoint Security performs cloud lookups on files downloaded during the Initial Access phase. This feature checks files against a cloud-based reputation database, enhancing detection capabilities for newly introduced files on the system. Function of Auto-Protect:
Auto-Protect immediately scans files as they are accessed or downloaded, leveraging Symantec’s cloud reputation to quickly determine the risk level of a file.
This real-time scanning and cloud lookup are essential during the Initial Access phase to prevent threats from executing.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Exploit Protection (Option A) focuses on protecting against application and system vulnerabilities, not file lookups.
Intrusion Prevention (Option C) monitors network-based threats, and Antimalware (Option D) generally focuses on known malware patterns rather than immediate cloud-based lookups.
Reference: Auto-Protect is designed for proactive file scanning with cloud lookups to prevent Initial Access threats.
B
Explanation:
Auto-Protect in Symantec Endpoint Security performs cloud lookups on files downloaded during the Initial Access phase. This feature checks files against a cloud-based reputation database, enhancing detection capabilities for newly introduced files on the system. Function of Auto-Protect:
Auto-Protect immediately scans files as they are accessed or downloaded, leveraging Symantec’s cloud reputation to quickly determine the risk level of a file.
This real-time scanning and cloud lookup are essential during the Initial Access phase to prevent threats from executing.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Exploit Protection (Option A) focuses on protecting against application and system vulnerabilities, not file lookups.
Intrusion Prevention (Option C) monitors network-based threats, and Antimalware (Option D) generally focuses on known malware patterns rather than immediate cloud-based lookups.
Reference: Auto-Protect is designed for proactive file scanning with cloud lookups to prevent Initial Access threats.
Question #16
Using a hybrid environment, if a SEPM-managed endpoint cannot connect to the SEPM, how quickly can an administrator receive a security alert if the endpoint is using a public hot-spot?
- A . After a VPN is activated with Network Integrity
- B . When the client connects to SEPM
- C . At the next heartbeat
- D . Immediately
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
In a hybrid environment, if a SEPM-managed endpoint cannot connect to SEPM and is using a public hotspot, the administrator can receive a security alert immediately through ICDm (Integrated Cyber Defense Manager).
Here’s how:
Cloud-Based Alerts: ICDm provides real-time monitoring and alerting capabilities that are not dependent on the endpoint’s direct connection to SEPM.
Network Independence: Since the endpoint connects to the cloud (ICDm), it can report events and alerts as soon as they occur, regardless of the network type or VPN status.
Enhanced Responsiveness: This setup allows administrators to respond quickly to security incidents even when endpoints are off-network, which is critical for threat containment in mobile and remote work scenarios.
ICDm’s immediate alerting capability in hybrid environments enables continuous monitoring and faster response to potential security threats.
D
Explanation:
In a hybrid environment, if a SEPM-managed endpoint cannot connect to SEPM and is using a public hotspot, the administrator can receive a security alert immediately through ICDm (Integrated Cyber Defense Manager).
Here’s how:
Cloud-Based Alerts: ICDm provides real-time monitoring and alerting capabilities that are not dependent on the endpoint’s direct connection to SEPM.
Network Independence: Since the endpoint connects to the cloud (ICDm), it can report events and alerts as soon as they occur, regardless of the network type or VPN status.
Enhanced Responsiveness: This setup allows administrators to respond quickly to security incidents even when endpoints are off-network, which is critical for threat containment in mobile and remote work scenarios.
ICDm’s immediate alerting capability in hybrid environments enables continuous monitoring and faster response to potential security threats.
Question #17
Why is it important for an Incident Responder to review Related Incidents and Events when analyzing an incident for an After Actions Report?
- A . It ensures that the Incident is resolved, and the threat does not continue to spread to other parts of the environment.
- B . It ensures that the Incident is resolved, and future threats are automatically remediated.
- C . It ensures that the Incident is resolved, and the responder is able to close the incident in the SEDR manager.
- D . It ensures that the Incident is resolved, and the responder can determine the best remediation method.
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Reviewing Related Incidents and Events is crucial for an Incident Responder when preparing an After Actions Report because it ensures that the Incident is fully resolved and allows the responder to identify the most effective remediation method. This process provides a comprehensive understanding of the incident’s impact and helps in implementing measures to prevent recurrence. Benefits of Reviewing Related Incidents and Events:
By analyzing related incidents and events, the responder gains insights into the incident’s scope, underlying causes, and any connections to other incidents, which can inform a more targeted and effective remediation strategy.
This thorough review can also help uncover patterns or vulnerabilities that were exploited, guiding
future preventative measures.
Why Other Options Are Less Comprehensive:
Options A and B focus on immediate resolution but do not cover the importance of identifying the best remediation methods.
Option C relates to closing the incident but does not address the broader need for detailed remediation strategies.
Reference: Reviewing related incidents is a best practice in incident response for comprehensive resolution and informed remediation in Symantec EDR environments.
D
Explanation:
Reviewing Related Incidents and Events is crucial for an Incident Responder when preparing an After Actions Report because it ensures that the Incident is fully resolved and allows the responder to identify the most effective remediation method. This process provides a comprehensive understanding of the incident’s impact and helps in implementing measures to prevent recurrence. Benefits of Reviewing Related Incidents and Events:
By analyzing related incidents and events, the responder gains insights into the incident’s scope, underlying causes, and any connections to other incidents, which can inform a more targeted and effective remediation strategy.
This thorough review can also help uncover patterns or vulnerabilities that were exploited, guiding
future preventative measures.
Why Other Options Are Less Comprehensive:
Options A and B focus on immediate resolution but do not cover the importance of identifying the best remediation methods.
Option C relates to closing the incident but does not address the broader need for detailed remediation strategies.
Reference: Reviewing related incidents is a best practice in incident response for comprehensive resolution and informed remediation in Symantec EDR environments.
Question #18
What EDR feature provides endpoint activity recorder data for a file hash?
- A . Process Dump
- B . Entity Dump
- C . Hash Dump
- D . Full Dump
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
In Symantec Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR), the Entity Dump feature provides detailed activity recorder data related to a specific file hash. This data is essential for understanding the behavior and origin of a suspicious file, as well as tracking its activity across endpoints. Here’s how it works:
Hash-Based Search: The EDR solution allows the administrator to search by file hash, which helps retrieve a history of the file’s interactions and activities.
Entity Dump Retrieval: Selecting the Entity Dump option provides comprehensive data, including process execution, file modification, network connections, and other endpoint interactions related to the file.
Enhanced Threat Analysis: By analyzing this information, the administrator gains insights into how the threat may have propagated, aiding in containment and mitigation efforts.
The Entity Dump is thus a vital tool in forensic analysis, providing detailed endpoint activity data for specified file hashes.
B
Explanation:
In Symantec Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR), the Entity Dump feature provides detailed activity recorder data related to a specific file hash. This data is essential for understanding the behavior and origin of a suspicious file, as well as tracking its activity across endpoints. Here’s how it works:
Hash-Based Search: The EDR solution allows the administrator to search by file hash, which helps retrieve a history of the file’s interactions and activities.
Entity Dump Retrieval: Selecting the Entity Dump option provides comprehensive data, including process execution, file modification, network connections, and other endpoint interactions related to the file.
Enhanced Threat Analysis: By analyzing this information, the administrator gains insights into how the threat may have propagated, aiding in containment and mitigation efforts.
The Entity Dump is thus a vital tool in forensic analysis, providing detailed endpoint activity data for specified file hashes.
Question #19
Why is it important for an Incident Responder to copy malicious files to the SEDR file store or create an image of the infected system during the Recovery phase?
- A . To create custom IPS signatures
- B . To test the effectiveness of the current assigned policy settings in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM)
- C . To have a copy of the file for policy enforcement
- D . To document and preserve any pieces of evidence associated with the incident
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
During the Recovery phase of an incident response, it is critical for an Incident Responder to copy malicious files to the SEDR file store or create an image of the infected system. This action preserves evidence associated with the incident, allowing for thorough investigation and analysis. By securing a copy of the malicious files or system state, responders maintain a record of the incident that can be analyzed for root cause assessment, used for potential legal proceedings, or retained for post-incident review. Documenting and preserving evidence ensures that key information is available for future reference or audits.
D
Explanation:
During the Recovery phase of an incident response, it is critical for an Incident Responder to copy malicious files to the SEDR file store or create an image of the infected system. This action preserves evidence associated with the incident, allowing for thorough investigation and analysis. By securing a copy of the malicious files or system state, responders maintain a record of the incident that can be analyzed for root cause assessment, used for potential legal proceedings, or retained for post-incident review. Documenting and preserving evidence ensures that key information is available for future reference or audits.
Question #20
Which option should an administrator utilize to temporarily or permanently block a file?
- A . Delete
- B . Hide
- C . Encrypt
- D . Deny List
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
To temporarily or permanently block a file, the administrator should use the Deny List option. Adding a file to the Deny List prevents it from executing or being accessed on the system, providing a straightforward way to block suspicious or unwanted files.
Functionality of Deny List:
Files on the Deny List are effectively blocked from running, which can be applied either temporarily or permanently depending on security requirements.
This list allows administrators to manage potentially malicious files by preventing them from executing across endpoints.
Why Other Options Are Not Suitable:
Delete (Option A) is a one-time action and does not prevent future attempts to reintroduce the file.
Hide (Option B) conceals files but does not restrict access.
Encrypt (Option C) secures the file’s data but does not prevent access or execution.
Reference: The Deny List feature in Symantec provides a robust mechanism for blocking files across endpoints, ensuring controlled access.
D
Explanation:
To temporarily or permanently block a file, the administrator should use the Deny List option. Adding a file to the Deny List prevents it from executing or being accessed on the system, providing a straightforward way to block suspicious or unwanted files.
Functionality of Deny List:
Files on the Deny List are effectively blocked from running, which can be applied either temporarily or permanently depending on security requirements.
This list allows administrators to manage potentially malicious files by preventing them from executing across endpoints.
Why Other Options Are Not Suitable:
Delete (Option A) is a one-time action and does not prevent future attempts to reintroduce the file.
Hide (Option B) conceals files but does not restrict access.
Encrypt (Option C) secures the file’s data but does not prevent access or execution.
Reference: The Deny List feature in Symantec provides a robust mechanism for blocking files across endpoints, ensuring controlled access.