Practice Free 250-580 Exam Online Questions
Question #1
What EDR function minimizes the risk of an endpoint infecting other resources in the environment?
- A . Quarantine
- B . Block
- C . Deny List
- D . Firewall
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The function of "Quarantine" in Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) minimizes the risk of an infected endpoint spreading malware or malicious activities to other systems within the network environment. This is accomplished by isolating or restricting access of the infected endpoint to contain any threat within that specific machine. Here’s how Quarantine functions as a protective measure:
Detection and Isolation: When EDR detects potential malicious behavior or files on an endpoint, it can automatically place the infected file or process in a "quarantine" area. This means the threat is separated from the rest of the system, restricting its ability to execute or interact with other resources.
Minimizing Spread: By isolating compromised files or applications, Quarantine ensures that malware or suspicious activities do not propagate to other endpoints, reducing the risk of a widespread infection.
Administrative Review: After an item is quarantined, administrators can review it to determine if it should be deleted or restored based on a false positive evaluation. This controlled environment allows for further analysis without risking network security.
Endpoint-Specific Control: Quarantine is designed to act at the endpoint level, applying restrictions that affect only the infected system without disrupting other network resources.
Using Quarantine as an EDR response mechanism aligns with best practices outlined in endpoint security documentation, such as Symantec Endpoint Protection, which emphasizes containment as a critical first response to threats. This approach supports the proactive defense strategy of limiting lateral movement of malware across a network, thus preserving the security and stability of the
entire system.
A
Explanation:
The function of "Quarantine" in Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) minimizes the risk of an infected endpoint spreading malware or malicious activities to other systems within the network environment. This is accomplished by isolating or restricting access of the infected endpoint to contain any threat within that specific machine. Here’s how Quarantine functions as a protective measure:
Detection and Isolation: When EDR detects potential malicious behavior or files on an endpoint, it can automatically place the infected file or process in a "quarantine" area. This means the threat is separated from the rest of the system, restricting its ability to execute or interact with other resources.
Minimizing Spread: By isolating compromised files or applications, Quarantine ensures that malware or suspicious activities do not propagate to other endpoints, reducing the risk of a widespread infection.
Administrative Review: After an item is quarantined, administrators can review it to determine if it should be deleted or restored based on a false positive evaluation. This controlled environment allows for further analysis without risking network security.
Endpoint-Specific Control: Quarantine is designed to act at the endpoint level, applying restrictions that affect only the infected system without disrupting other network resources.
Using Quarantine as an EDR response mechanism aligns with best practices outlined in endpoint security documentation, such as Symantec Endpoint Protection, which emphasizes containment as a critical first response to threats. This approach supports the proactive defense strategy of limiting lateral movement of malware across a network, thus preserving the security and stability of the
entire system.
Question #2
Which security threat stage seeks to gather valuable data and upload it to a compromised system?
- A . Exfiltration
- B . Impact
- C . Lateral Movement
- D . Command and Control
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
The Exfiltration stage in the threat lifecycle is when attackers attempt to gather and transfer valuable data from a compromised system to an external location under their control. This stage typically follows data discovery and involves:
Data Collection: Attackers collect sensitive information such as credentials, financial data, or intellectual property.
Data Transfer: The data is then transferred out of the organization’s network to the attacker’s servers, often through encrypted channels to avoid detection.
Significant Impact on Security and Privacy: Successful exfiltration can lead to substantial security and privacy violations, emphasizing the importance of detection and prevention mechanisms. Exfiltration is a critical stage in a cyber attack, where valuable data is removed, posing a significant risk to the compromised organization.
A
Explanation:
The Exfiltration stage in the threat lifecycle is when attackers attempt to gather and transfer valuable data from a compromised system to an external location under their control. This stage typically follows data discovery and involves:
Data Collection: Attackers collect sensitive information such as credentials, financial data, or intellectual property.
Data Transfer: The data is then transferred out of the organization’s network to the attacker’s servers, often through encrypted channels to avoid detection.
Significant Impact on Security and Privacy: Successful exfiltration can lead to substantial security and privacy violations, emphasizing the importance of detection and prevention mechanisms. Exfiltration is a critical stage in a cyber attack, where valuable data is removed, posing a significant risk to the compromised organization.
Question #3
Which protection technology can detect botnet command and control traffic generated on the Symantec Endpoint Protection client machine?
- A . Insight
- B . SONAR
- C . Risk Tracer
- D . Intrusion Prevention
Correct Answer: D
D
Explanation:
Intrusion Prevention is the protection technology within Symantec Endpoint Protection that can detect botnet command and control (C&C) traffic. By analyzing network traffic patterns and identifying known C&C communication characteristics, Intrusion Prevention can block suspicious network connections indicative of botnet activity.
How Intrusion Prevention Detects Botnet Traffic:
Intrusion Prevention monitors outbound and inbound traffic for signatures associated with botnet C&C protocols.
It can block connections to known malicious IPs or domains, effectively disrupting the communication between the botnet client and its controller.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Insight (Option A) focuses on file reputation rather than network traffic.
SONAR (Option B) detects behavior-based threats on the endpoint but not specifically C&C traffic. Risk Tracer (Option C) identifies the source of detected threats but does not directly detect botnet network traffic.
Reference: Intrusion Prevention is a key component in detecting and blocking botnet C&C traffic, preventing compromised endpoints from communicating with attackers.
D
Explanation:
Intrusion Prevention is the protection technology within Symantec Endpoint Protection that can detect botnet command and control (C&C) traffic. By analyzing network traffic patterns and identifying known C&C communication characteristics, Intrusion Prevention can block suspicious network connections indicative of botnet activity.
How Intrusion Prevention Detects Botnet Traffic:
Intrusion Prevention monitors outbound and inbound traffic for signatures associated with botnet C&C protocols.
It can block connections to known malicious IPs or domains, effectively disrupting the communication between the botnet client and its controller.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Insight (Option A) focuses on file reputation rather than network traffic.
SONAR (Option B) detects behavior-based threats on the endpoint but not specifically C&C traffic. Risk Tracer (Option C) identifies the source of detected threats but does not directly detect botnet network traffic.
Reference: Intrusion Prevention is a key component in detecting and blocking botnet C&C traffic, preventing compromised endpoints from communicating with attackers.
Question #4
Which type of activity recorder does EDR provide?
- A . Virtual
- B . Endpoint
- C . Email
- D . Temporary
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Symantec Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) provides an Endpoint activity recorder to monitor, log, and analyze behaviors on endpoints. This feature captures various endpoint activities such as process execution, file modifications, and network connections, which are essential for detecting and investigating potential security incidents.
Purpose of Endpoint Activity Recorder:
The endpoint activity recorder helps track specific actions and behaviors on endpoints, providing insights into potentially suspicious or malicious activity.
This data is valuable for incident response and for understanding how threats may have propagated across the network.
Why Other Options Are Not Suitable:
Virtual (Option A), Email (Option C), and Temporary (Option D) do not accurately represent the continuous and comprehensive nature of endpoint activity monitoring.
Reference: The endpoint activity recorder in EDR is a core feature for tracking and analyzing endpoint events for enhanced security.
B
Explanation:
Symantec Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR) provides an Endpoint activity recorder to monitor, log, and analyze behaviors on endpoints. This feature captures various endpoint activities such as process execution, file modifications, and network connections, which are essential for detecting and investigating potential security incidents.
Purpose of Endpoint Activity Recorder:
The endpoint activity recorder helps track specific actions and behaviors on endpoints, providing insights into potentially suspicious or malicious activity.
This data is valuable for incident response and for understanding how threats may have propagated across the network.
Why Other Options Are Not Suitable:
Virtual (Option A), Email (Option C), and Temporary (Option D) do not accurately represent the continuous and comprehensive nature of endpoint activity monitoring.
Reference: The endpoint activity recorder in EDR is a core feature for tracking and analyzing endpoint events for enhanced security.
Question #5
When configuring Network Integrity, why is it a requirement to add trusted certificates?
- A . To allow enterprise SSL decryption for security scanning
- B . To secure the connection to ICDm
- C . To allow a trusted VPN connection
- D . To bypass an attacker’s MITM proxy
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
When configuring Network Integrity in Symantec Endpoint Security, it is essential to add trusted certificates to allow enterprise SSL decryption for security scanning. This enables the inspection of encrypted traffic, which is critical for identifying threats or anomalies in SSL/TLS communications. Purpose of Trusted Certificates:
Adding trusted certificates facilitates SSL decryption, allowing the security system to analyze encrypted data streams for potential threats without triggering security warnings or connection issues.
Why Other Options Are Less Applicable:
Securing connections to ICDm (Option B) and VPN connections (Option C) are not directly related to Network Integrity’s focus on SSL decryption.
Bypassing an attacker’s MITM proxy (Option D) does not directly address the function of trusted certificates within Network Integrity.
Reference: Adding trusted certificates is necessary for enabling SSL decryption, which is crucial for comprehensive security scanning in Network Integrity.
A
Explanation:
When configuring Network Integrity in Symantec Endpoint Security, it is essential to add trusted certificates to allow enterprise SSL decryption for security scanning. This enables the inspection of encrypted traffic, which is critical for identifying threats or anomalies in SSL/TLS communications. Purpose of Trusted Certificates:
Adding trusted certificates facilitates SSL decryption, allowing the security system to analyze encrypted data streams for potential threats without triggering security warnings or connection issues.
Why Other Options Are Less Applicable:
Securing connections to ICDm (Option B) and VPN connections (Option C) are not directly related to Network Integrity’s focus on SSL decryption.
Bypassing an attacker’s MITM proxy (Option D) does not directly address the function of trusted certificates within Network Integrity.
Reference: Adding trusted certificates is necessary for enabling SSL decryption, which is crucial for comprehensive security scanning in Network Integrity.
Question #6
How are Insight results stored?
- A . Encrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
- B . Unencrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
- C . Encrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection client
- D . Unencrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection client
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Insight results are stored encrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM). This ensures that reputation data and related security insights are kept secure within the management infrastructure, protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access. Security of Insight Results:
Storing Insight results in an encrypted format within SEPM prevents tampering or unauthorized access, which is critical for maintaining data integrity in security operations.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Unencrypted storage (Options B and D) would not provide adequate security.
Storing results on the Symantec Endpoint Protection client (Options C and D) is unnecessary, as
Insight data is managed and stored centrally on SEPM.
Reference: Encryption of Insight results within SEPM enhances the security of sensitive reputation data used for threat prevention.
A
Explanation:
Insight results are stored encrypted on the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM). This ensures that reputation data and related security insights are kept secure within the management infrastructure, protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access. Security of Insight Results:
Storing Insight results in an encrypted format within SEPM prevents tampering or unauthorized access, which is critical for maintaining data integrity in security operations.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Unencrypted storage (Options B and D) would not provide adequate security.
Storing results on the Symantec Endpoint Protection client (Options C and D) is unnecessary, as
Insight data is managed and stored centrally on SEPM.
Reference: Encryption of Insight results within SEPM enhances the security of sensitive reputation data used for threat prevention.
Question #7
When can an administrator add a new replication partner?
- A . Immediately following the first LiveUpdate session of the new site
- B . During a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager upgrade
- C . During the initial installation of the new site
- D . Immediately following a successful Active Directory sync
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
An administrator can add a new replication partner during the initial installation of a new site in
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM).
This timing is essential because:
Initial Setup of Replication: Configuring replication during installation ensures that the new site can immediately synchronize policies, logs, and other critical data with the existing SEPM environment. Seamless Data Consistency: Setting up replication from the beginning avoids the need for complex data merging later and ensures both sites are aligned in real time.
Configuring replication at the installation stage facilitates a smoother integration and consistent data flow between SEPM sites.
C
Explanation:
An administrator can add a new replication partner during the initial installation of a new site in
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM).
This timing is essential because:
Initial Setup of Replication: Configuring replication during installation ensures that the new site can immediately synchronize policies, logs, and other critical data with the existing SEPM environment. Seamless Data Consistency: Setting up replication from the beginning avoids the need for complex data merging later and ensures both sites are aligned in real time.
Configuring replication at the installation stage facilitates a smoother integration and consistent data flow between SEPM sites.
Question #8
Which alert rule category includes events that are generated about the cloud console?
- A . Security
- B . System
- C . Diagnostic
- D . Application Activity
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
The System alert rule category includes events generated about the cloud console. These alerts relate to system-level activities within the management console, such as administrative actions, system health checks, and other essential notifications related to console operations.
Types of Alerts in System Category:
System alerts cover activities directly associated with the console and infrastructure, ensuring that administrators are informed of significant changes or issues affecting the management platform itself.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Security (Option A) focuses on potential threats and security events.
Diagnostic (Option C) involves troubleshooting information but does not specifically cover console events.
Application Activity (Option D) pertains to application-specific events rather than console-level notifications.
Reference: System alerts provide visibility into cloud console-related events, crucial for managing and maintaining the console’s operational integrity.
B
Explanation:
The System alert rule category includes events generated about the cloud console. These alerts relate to system-level activities within the management console, such as administrative actions, system health checks, and other essential notifications related to console operations.
Types of Alerts in System Category:
System alerts cover activities directly associated with the console and infrastructure, ensuring that administrators are informed of significant changes or issues affecting the management platform itself.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Security (Option A) focuses on potential threats and security events.
Diagnostic (Option C) involves troubleshooting information but does not specifically cover console events.
Application Activity (Option D) pertains to application-specific events rather than console-level notifications.
Reference: System alerts provide visibility into cloud console-related events, crucial for managing and maintaining the console’s operational integrity.
Question #9
Which two (2) instances could cause Symantec Endpoint Protection to be unable to remediate a file? (Select two.)
- A . Another scan is in progress.
- B . The detected file is in use.
- C . There are insufficient file permissions.
- D . The file is marked for deletion by Windows on restart.
- E . The file has good reputation.
Correct Answer: BC
BC
Explanation:
Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) may be unable to remediate a file in certain situations.
Two primary reasons for this failure are:
The detected file is in use (Option B): When a file is actively being used by the system or an application, SEP cannot remediate or delete it until it is no longer in use. Active files are locked by the operating system, preventing modification.
Insufficient file permissions (Option C): SEP needs adequate permissions to access and modify files. If SEP does not have the necessary permissions for the detected file, it cannot perform remediation.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Another scan in progress (Option A) does not directly prevent remediation.
File marked for deletion on restart (Option D) would typically allow SEP to complete the deletion
upon reboot.
File with good reputation (Option E) is less likely to be flagged for remediation but would not prevent it if flagged.
Reference: File in-use status and insufficient permissions are common causes of remediation failure in SEP environments.
BC
Explanation:
Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) may be unable to remediate a file in certain situations.
Two primary reasons for this failure are:
The detected file is in use (Option B): When a file is actively being used by the system or an application, SEP cannot remediate or delete it until it is no longer in use. Active files are locked by the operating system, preventing modification.
Insufficient file permissions (Option C): SEP needs adequate permissions to access and modify files. If SEP does not have the necessary permissions for the detected file, it cannot perform remediation.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
Another scan in progress (Option A) does not directly prevent remediation.
File marked for deletion on restart (Option D) would typically allow SEP to complete the deletion
upon reboot.
File with good reputation (Option E) is less likely to be flagged for remediation but would not prevent it if flagged.
Reference: File in-use status and insufficient permissions are common causes of remediation failure in SEP environments.
Question #10
What priority would an incident that may have an impact on business be considered?
- A . Low
- B . Critical
- C . High
- D . Medium
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
An incident that may have an impact on business is typically classified with a High priority in cybersecurity frameworks and incident response protocols. Here’s a detailed rationale for this classification:
Potential Business Disruption: An incident that affects or threatens to affect business operations, even if indirectly, is assigned a high priority to ensure swift response. This classification prioritizes incidents that may not be immediately critical but could escalate if not addressed promptly.
Risk of Escalation: High-priority incidents are situations that, while not catastrophic, have the potential to impact critical systems or compromise sensitive data, thus needing attention before they lead to severe business repercussions.
Rapid Response Requirement: Incidents labeled as high priority are flagged for immediate investigation and containment measures to prevent further business impact or operational downtime.
In this context, while Critical incidents involve urgent threats with immediate, severe effects (such as active data breaches), a High priority applies to incidents with significant risk or potential for business impact. This prioritization is essential for effective incident management, enabling resources to focus on potential risks to business continuity.
C
Explanation:
An incident that may have an impact on business is typically classified with a High priority in cybersecurity frameworks and incident response protocols. Here’s a detailed rationale for this classification:
Potential Business Disruption: An incident that affects or threatens to affect business operations, even if indirectly, is assigned a high priority to ensure swift response. This classification prioritizes incidents that may not be immediately critical but could escalate if not addressed promptly.
Risk of Escalation: High-priority incidents are situations that, while not catastrophic, have the potential to impact critical systems or compromise sensitive data, thus needing attention before they lead to severe business repercussions.
Rapid Response Requirement: Incidents labeled as high priority are flagged for immediate investigation and containment measures to prevent further business impact or operational downtime.
In this context, while Critical incidents involve urgent threats with immediate, severe effects (such as active data breaches), a High priority applies to incidents with significant risk or potential for business impact. This prioritization is essential for effective incident management, enabling resources to focus on potential risks to business continuity.