Practice Free 220-1102 Exam Online Questions
A BSOD appears on a user’s workstation monitor. The user immediately presses the power button to shut down the PC, hoping to repair the issue. The user then restarts the PC, and the BSOD reappears, so the user contacts the help desk.
Which of the following should the technician use to determine the cause?
- A . Stop code
- B . Event Mewer
- C . Services
- D . System Configuration
A
Explanation:
When a Blue Screen of Death (BSOD) appears on a Windows workstation, it indicates that there is a serious problem with the operating system. The stop code displayed on the BSOD can provide valuable information to help determine the cause of the issue. The stop code is a specific error code that is associated with the BSOD, and it can help identify the root cause of the problem.
In this scenario, the user has encountered a BSOD and has restarted the PC, only to see the BSOD reappear. This suggests that the problem is persistent and requires further investigation. By analyzing the stop code displayed on the BSOD, a technician can begin to identify the underlying issue and take appropriate actions to resolve it.
A technician is troubleshooting boot times for a user. The technician attempts to use MSConfig to see which programs are starting with the OS but receives a message that it can no longer be used to view startup items.
Which of the following programs can the technician use to view startup items?
- A . msinfo32
- B . perfmon
- C . regedit
- D . taskmgr
D
Explanation:
When troubleshooting boot times for a user, a technician may want to check which programs are starting with the operating system to identify any that may be slowing down the boot process. MSConfig is a tool that can be used to view startup items on a Windows system, but it may not always be available or functional.
In this scenario, the technician receives a message that MSConfig cannot be used to view startup items. As an alternative, the technician can use Task Manager (taskmgr), which can also display the programs that run at startup.
To access the list of startup items in Task Manager, the technician can follow these steps:
✑ Open Task Manager by pressing Ctrl+Shift+Esc.
✑ Click the "Startup" tab.
✑ The list of programs that run at startup will be displayed.
A hard drive that previously contained PI I needs to be repurposed for a public access workstation.
Which of the following data destruction methods should a technician use to ensure data is completely removed from the hard drive?
- A . Shredding
- B . Degaussing
- C . Low-level formatting
- D . Recycling
A
Explanation:
Shredding is a data destruction method that physically destroys the hard drive by cutting it into small pieces using a machine. Shredding ensures that data is completely removed from the hard drive and cannot be recovered by any means. Shredding is suitable for hard drives that contain PII (personally identifiable information), which is any information that can be used to identify, contact, or locate an individual. Degaussing, low-level formatting, and recycling are not data destruction methods that can guarantee complete data removal from a hard drive.
A systems administrator is setting up a Windows computer for a new user Corporate policy requires a least privilege environment. The user will need to access advanced features and configuration settings for several applications.
Which of the following BEST describes the account access level the user will need?
- A . Power user account
- B . Standard account
- C . Guest account
- D . Administrator account
A
Explanation:
A "Power User" account in a Windows environment typically has more permissions than a Standard User but less than an Administrator. This would allow the user to access advanced features and configuration settings for applications as required, but wouldn’t grant them full administrative access to the system, helping to maintain a least privilege environment as per the corporate policy. Please note that in the most recent versions of Windows, the "Power User" group is present for backward compatibility purposes and does not provide any additional permissions over a standard user. For these systems, you may have to create a custom group with the required permissions.
A technician is preparing to remediate a Trojan virus that was found on a workstation.
Which of the following steps should the technician complete BEFORE removing the virus?
- A . Disable System Restore.
- B . Schedule a malware scan.
- C . Educate the end user.
- D . Run Windows Update.
A
Explanation:
Before removing a Trojan virus from a workstation, a technician should disable System Restore. System Restore is a feature that allows users to restore their system to a previous state in case of problems or errors. However, System Restore can also restore infected files or registry entries that were removed by antivirus software or manual actions. By disabling System Restore, a technician can ensure that the Trojan virus is completely removed and does not reappear after a system restore operation. Scheduling a malware scan may help detect and remove some malware but may not be effective against all types of Trojan viruses. Educating the end user may help prevent future infections but does not address the current issue of removing the Trojan virus. Running Windows Update may help patch some security vulnerabilities but does not guarantee that the Trojan virus will be removed. References: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.3
A technician is investigating a workstation that has not received the latest policy changes.
Which of the following commands should the technician use to apply the latest domain policy changes?
- A . sfc /scannow
- B . gpupdare /force
- C . chkdsk /y
- D . xcopy Zp
B
Explanation:
When a workstation has not received the latest policy changes, the gpupdate command is used to manually apply the latest group policies from the domain controller.
Option A: sfc /scannow
This command is used to scan and repair corrupted system files, not to update group policies.
Option B: gpupdate /force
This command forces the workstation to reapply all group policies, ensuring that the latest policies are applied immediately.
Option C: chkdsk /y
This command checks the integrity of the file system and fixes logical file system errors, not to update group policies.
Option D: xcopy /Zp
This command is used for copying files and directories, not for updating group policies.
Reference: CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 1.6 (Configure Microsoft Windows networking features on a client/desktop), particularly managing and applying group policies.
A technician needs to establish a remote access session with a user who has a Windows workstation. The session must allow for simultaneous viewing of the workstation by both the user and technician.
Which of the following remote access technologies should be used?
- A . RDP
- B . VPN
- C . SSH
- D . MSRA
D
Explanation:
MSRA (Microsoft Remote Assistance) is a remote access technology that allows a technician to establish a session with a user who has a Windows workstation. The session allows for simultaneous viewing of the workstation by both the user and technician, as well as remote control and file transfer capabilities. RDP (remote desktop protocol) is another remote access technology, but it does not allow simultaneous viewing by default. VPN (virtual private network) and SSH (secure shell) are protocols that create secure tunnels between two devices over the internet, but they do not allow remote access sessions.
Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-msra https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
Which of the following ensures proprietary information on a lost or stolen mobile device cannot be accessed while the device is offline?
- A . Remote wipe
- B . Mandatory screen locks
- C . Location applications
- D . Device data encryption
D
Explanation:
Detailed
Device data encryption (Option D) ensures that even if the device is lost or stolen, its data cannot be accessed without proper credentials, even while offline. Encryption protects the data at rest, making it unreadable without the decryption key.
Remote wipe (Option A) requires the device to be online to receive the wipe command. Mandatory screen locks (Option B) provide a layer of security but can be bypassed with physical access in some cases.
Location applications (Option C) help track the device but don’t protect data.
CompTIA A+ Core 2
Reference: 2.7 – Explain methods for securing mobile devices, including encryption
A technician is trying to encrypt a single folder on a PC.
Which of the following should the technician use to accomplish this task?
- A . FAT32
- B . exFAT
- C . BitLocker
- D . EFS
D
Explanation:
EFS (Encrypting File System) is a feature that allows a user to encrypt a single folder or file on a Windows PC. It uses a public key encryption system to protect the data from unauthorized access. FAT32 and exFAT are file system formats that do not support encryption. BitLocker is a feature that encrypts the entire drive, not a single folder or file.
Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-efs https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a
A customer is accessing a public kiosk in a company’s lobby.
Which of the following should be enforced to mitigate the risk of customer data being accidentally saved to the kiosk?
- A . Manually clearing browsing data
- B . Private-browsing mode
- C . Browser data synchronization
- D . Password manager
B
Explanation:
Private-browsing mode is the best option to mitigate the risk of customer data being accidentally saved to the kiosk. Private-browsing mode prevents the browser from storing cookies, history, passwords, and other data that could reveal the customer’s identity or preferences. Manually clearing browsing data is not a reliable option, as it depends on the customer’s awareness and willingness to do so. Browser data synchronization and password manager are features that could actually increase the risk of customer data being exposed, as they could sync or autofill sensitive information across devices or accounts.
Reference: Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 12
Certification Study Guides and Books | CompTIA IT Certifications, CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1101 Certification Study Guide, page 234