Practice Free 220-1101 Exam Online Questions
Question #111
Which of the following services checks whether the sender’s IP address is associated with the sender’s domain name when receiving email?
- A . DKIM
- B . MX
- C . SPF
- D . DMARC
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. SPF.
SPF stands for Sender Policy Framework, which is a protocol that allows domain owners to specify which IP addresses are authorized to send email on behalf of their domains1. SPF helps prevent email spoofing and phishing by verifying the sender’s identity and preventing unauthorized use of their domain name12.
When an email is received, the receiving server checks the SPF record of the sender’s domain, which is a DNS TXT record that lists the valid IP addresses for that domain12. The server then compares the sender’s IP address with the SPF record and determines if it matches or not. If it matches, the email passes the SPF check and is accepted; if it does not match, the email fails the SPF check and is rejected or marked as spam12.
DKIM stands for DomainKeys Identified Mail, which is a protocol that allows domain owners to digitally sign their emails using a public-private key pair3. DKIM helps ensure the integrity and authenticity of email messages by verifying that they have not been tampered with or forged during transit3.
MX stands for Mail Exchange, which is a type of DNS record that specifies the mail servers that are responsible for receiving email for a domain. MX records help direct incoming email to the correct destination and prioritize them based on preference values.
DMARC stands for Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance, which is a
protocol that builds on SPF and DKIM and allows domain owners to define how receivers should handle unauthenticated or suspicious emails from their domains. DMARC helps protect domains from email fraud and abuse by providing feedback and reports on email delivery and authentication status.
Therefore, SPF is the only service among the options that checks whether the sender’s IP address is associated with the sender’s domain name when receiving email.
C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. SPF.
SPF stands for Sender Policy Framework, which is a protocol that allows domain owners to specify which IP addresses are authorized to send email on behalf of their domains1. SPF helps prevent email spoofing and phishing by verifying the sender’s identity and preventing unauthorized use of their domain name12.
When an email is received, the receiving server checks the SPF record of the sender’s domain, which is a DNS TXT record that lists the valid IP addresses for that domain12. The server then compares the sender’s IP address with the SPF record and determines if it matches or not. If it matches, the email passes the SPF check and is accepted; if it does not match, the email fails the SPF check and is rejected or marked as spam12.
DKIM stands for DomainKeys Identified Mail, which is a protocol that allows domain owners to digitally sign their emails using a public-private key pair3. DKIM helps ensure the integrity and authenticity of email messages by verifying that they have not been tampered with or forged during transit3.
MX stands for Mail Exchange, which is a type of DNS record that specifies the mail servers that are responsible for receiving email for a domain. MX records help direct incoming email to the correct destination and prioritize them based on preference values.
DMARC stands for Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance, which is a
protocol that builds on SPF and DKIM and allows domain owners to define how receivers should handle unauthenticated or suspicious emails from their domains. DMARC helps protect domains from email fraud and abuse by providing feedback and reports on email delivery and authentication status.
Therefore, SPF is the only service among the options that checks whether the sender’s IP address is associated with the sender’s domain name when receiving email.
Question #112
A software developer used client-side virtualization on a server to configure a web application. Although the application is working locally on the software developer’s PC, other users on the LAN are not able to access the application.
Which of the following would allow other users to access the application?
- A . Bridge networking
- B . Application virtualization
- C . Virtual desktop
- D . Site-to-site VPN
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
Client-side virtualization is used to run an application or process on a separate virtual machine, isolated from the main operating system. To allow other users on the LAN to access the application, the software developer should configure a bridge networking connection between the virtual machine and the LAN. This will allow the virtual machine to communicate with other computers on the network. Application virtualization, virtual desktop, and site-to-site VPN are not necessary steps for allowing other users to access the application.
A
Explanation:
Client-side virtualization is used to run an application or process on a separate virtual machine, isolated from the main operating system. To allow other users on the LAN to access the application, the software developer should configure a bridge networking connection between the virtual machine and the LAN. This will allow the virtual machine to communicate with other computers on the network. Application virtualization, virtual desktop, and site-to-site VPN are not necessary steps for allowing other users to access the application.
Question #113
A technician is creating a new RAID array for a customer After interviewing the customer, the technician decides to implement a RAID array of striping without parity.
Which of the following reasons would lead the technician to choose striping without parity instead of striping with parity?
- A . Uptime is the customer’s biggest concern
- B . Speed is the most important consideration.
- C . Redundancy and speed are equally important
- D . Available storage space needs to be maximized
Correct Answer: B
B
Explanation:
Speed is the most important consideration. Striping without parity, also known as RAID 0, is a RAID configuration that splits data across multiple disks without any redundancy. This improves the performance of read and write operations, as multiple disks can work in parallel. However, this also increases the risk of data loss, as any disk failure will result in losing all data on the array. Therefore, striping without parity is suitable for situations where speed is prioritized over reliability. According to the CompTIA Core1 objectives, one of the advantages of RAID 0 is increased speed. A research paper on RAID performance also confirms that RAID 0 has the highest throughput among all RAID levels.
B
Explanation:
Speed is the most important consideration. Striping without parity, also known as RAID 0, is a RAID configuration that splits data across multiple disks without any redundancy. This improves the performance of read and write operations, as multiple disks can work in parallel. However, this also increases the risk of data loss, as any disk failure will result in losing all data on the array. Therefore, striping without parity is suitable for situations where speed is prioritized over reliability. According to the CompTIA Core1 objectives, one of the advantages of RAID 0 is increased speed. A research paper on RAID performance also confirms that RAID 0 has the highest throughput among all RAID levels.
Question #114
A technician has been called into a conference room to help with a video call setup. The user is unable to get the laptop screen to mirror to the in-room television. The technician confirms that the appropriate HDMI cable is plugged into the user’s computer and the TV has a blinking logo on the screen.
Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?
- A . The user’s laptop does not support screen mirroring
- B . The television does not support screen mirroring
- C . The wrong input is selected on the television.
- D . The user does not have Bluetooth enabled on the laptop.
- E . The television has a defective A/C adapter cable.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
When a laptop screen fails to mirror to a television despite being correctly connected via an HDMI cable, a common issue is that the television is set to the wrong input source. Modern televisions have multiple input options (e.g., HDMI 1, HDMI 2, AV, etc.), and selecting the correct input that corresponds to the port the HDMI cable is connected to is essential for displaying the laptop’s screen. The blinking logo on the TV screen typically indicates that the TV is functioning but not receiving a signal from the selected input source. Changing the TV’s input to the correct HDMI port should resolve the issue and allow the laptop screen to mirror onto the TV.
Reference: Hardware 1101.docx, "Connecting External Displays" section.
C
Explanation:
When a laptop screen fails to mirror to a television despite being correctly connected via an HDMI cable, a common issue is that the television is set to the wrong input source. Modern televisions have multiple input options (e.g., HDMI 1, HDMI 2, AV, etc.), and selecting the correct input that corresponds to the port the HDMI cable is connected to is essential for displaying the laptop’s screen. The blinking logo on the TV screen typically indicates that the TV is functioning but not receiving a signal from the selected input source. Changing the TV’s input to the correct HDMI port should resolve the issue and allow the laptop screen to mirror onto the TV.
Reference: Hardware 1101.docx, "Connecting External Displays" section.
Question #115
Which of the following scenarios best illustrate a need for VDI? (Select two).
- A . An employee needs the ability to work remotely on a non-company-provided computer
- B . A company that needs to store 10PB worth of data
- C . An employee has latency-sensitive workflow requirements
- D . A bank that has security concerns regarding employee activity
- E . A payment processor that is planning on implementing virtual currency
- F . An application developer who needs to configure network settings for an application
Correct Answer: AD
AD
Explanation:
VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) allows users to access a desktop environment that is running on a server in the data center rather than on the local machine. This is particularly useful for employees who need to work remotely on various devices (A), as it provides a consistent and secure environment regardless of the endpoint device. For a bank with security concerns regarding employee activity (D), VDI offers a centralized management of desktops, enhancing security by keeping sensitive data and applications within the data center and not on the local devices, thus reducing the risk of data breaches.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives Section 4.2: Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization.
AD
Explanation:
VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) allows users to access a desktop environment that is running on a server in the data center rather than on the local machine. This is particularly useful for employees who need to work remotely on various devices (A), as it provides a consistent and secure environment regardless of the endpoint device. For a bank with security concerns regarding employee activity (D), VDI offers a centralized management of desktops, enhancing security by keeping sensitive data and applications within the data center and not on the local devices, thus reducing the risk of data breaches.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives Section 4.2: Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization.
Question #115
Which of the following scenarios best illustrate a need for VDI? (Select two).
- A . An employee needs the ability to work remotely on a non-company-provided computer
- B . A company that needs to store 10PB worth of data
- C . An employee has latency-sensitive workflow requirements
- D . A bank that has security concerns regarding employee activity
- E . A payment processor that is planning on implementing virtual currency
- F . An application developer who needs to configure network settings for an application
Correct Answer: AD
AD
Explanation:
VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) allows users to access a desktop environment that is running on a server in the data center rather than on the local machine. This is particularly useful for employees who need to work remotely on various devices (A), as it provides a consistent and secure environment regardless of the endpoint device. For a bank with security concerns regarding employee activity (D), VDI offers a centralized management of desktops, enhancing security by keeping sensitive data and applications within the data center and not on the local devices, thus reducing the risk of data breaches.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives Section 4.2: Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization.
AD
Explanation:
VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure) allows users to access a desktop environment that is running on a server in the data center rather than on the local machine. This is particularly useful for employees who need to work remotely on various devices (A), as it provides a consistent and secure environment regardless of the endpoint device. For a bank with security concerns regarding employee activity (D), VDI offers a centralized management of desktops, enhancing security by keeping sensitive data and applications within the data center and not on the local devices, thus reducing the risk of data breaches.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives Section 4.2: Summarize aspects of client-side virtualization.
Question #117
Which of the following is used to implement network security polices for an environment?
- A . Managed switch
- B . Repeater
- C . Firewall
- D . Gateway
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
It is designed to protect an organization’s network infrastructure and data from unauthorized access, while allowing legitimate traffic to pass through. Firewalls can be configured to enforce security policies that block certain types of traffic, limit access to specific network resources, and prevent attacks such as malware and phishing.
A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. It establishes a barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, such as the Internet. Firewalls are used to implement network security policies for an environment by controlling access to the network and protecting it from unauthorized access.
A firewall is used to implement network security policies. It monitors incoming and outgoing traffic based on predetermined security rules and can block traffic that does not meet the defined criteria. References: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Chapter 6, page 243)
C
Explanation:
It is designed to protect an organization’s network infrastructure and data from unauthorized access, while allowing legitimate traffic to pass through. Firewalls can be configured to enforce security policies that block certain types of traffic, limit access to specific network resources, and prevent attacks such as malware and phishing.
A firewall is a network security system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. It establishes a barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, such as the Internet. Firewalls are used to implement network security policies for an environment by controlling access to the network and protecting it from unauthorized access.
A firewall is used to implement network security policies. It monitors incoming and outgoing traffic based on predetermined security rules and can block traffic that does not meet the defined criteria. References: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Chapter 6, page 243)
Question #118
A technician is setting up a new laptop for a user who wants to be able to quickly pack up the laptop and leave if needed.
The user has the following accessories:
• USB badge reader
• USB badge printer
• USB signature pad
• 3.5mm headset
• HDMI external monitor
• Mouse
Which of the following is the best way to meet the user’s requirement?
- A . Directly connect all accessories to the laptop.
- B . Provide the user with a second laptop.
- C . Connect everything to a compatible docking station.
- D . Provide the user with a USB hub.
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
The best way to meet the user’s requirement is C. Connect everything to a compatible docking station.
A docking station is a device that allows a laptop to connect to multiple peripherals and accessories with a single connection. A docking station usually has ports for USB, HDMI, audio, Ethernet, and power, as well as slots for expansion cards. A docking station can enhance the functionality and convenience of a laptop by providing a desktop-like experience1. A compatible docking station is one that matches the laptop’s model, brand, and connector type2.
A port replicator is a simpler device that only replicates the ports of the laptop, such as USB and HDMI, without providing additional features or power. A port replicator can also allow a laptop to connect to multiple peripherals and accessories with a single connection, but it does not offer the same benefits as a docking station1.
Directly connecting all accessories to the laptop would not meet the user’s requirement, as it would be cumbersome and time-consuming to pack up and leave if needed. The user would have to disconnect and reconnect multiple cables every time they want to use or move the laptop. This option would also limit the number of accessories that can be connected, as the laptop may not have enough ports for all of them.
Providing the user with a second laptop would not meet the user’s requirement, as it would be expensive and impractical. The user would have to transfer data and settings between the two laptops, and keep them both updated and secure. This option would also create confusion and redundancy, as the user would have two identical devices.
Providing the user with a USB hub would not meet the user’s requirement, as it would only allow the user to connect more USB devices to the laptop. A USB hub is a device that splits one USB port into multiple ports, but it does not support other types of connections, such as HDMI or audio. A USB hub would also require an external power source or drain the laptop’s battery faster. This option would not help the user connect the HDMI external monitor or the 3.5mm headset.
C
Explanation:
The best way to meet the user’s requirement is C. Connect everything to a compatible docking station.
A docking station is a device that allows a laptop to connect to multiple peripherals and accessories with a single connection. A docking station usually has ports for USB, HDMI, audio, Ethernet, and power, as well as slots for expansion cards. A docking station can enhance the functionality and convenience of a laptop by providing a desktop-like experience1. A compatible docking station is one that matches the laptop’s model, brand, and connector type2.
A port replicator is a simpler device that only replicates the ports of the laptop, such as USB and HDMI, without providing additional features or power. A port replicator can also allow a laptop to connect to multiple peripherals and accessories with a single connection, but it does not offer the same benefits as a docking station1.
Directly connecting all accessories to the laptop would not meet the user’s requirement, as it would be cumbersome and time-consuming to pack up and leave if needed. The user would have to disconnect and reconnect multiple cables every time they want to use or move the laptop. This option would also limit the number of accessories that can be connected, as the laptop may not have enough ports for all of them.
Providing the user with a second laptop would not meet the user’s requirement, as it would be expensive and impractical. The user would have to transfer data and settings between the two laptops, and keep them both updated and secure. This option would also create confusion and redundancy, as the user would have two identical devices.
Providing the user with a USB hub would not meet the user’s requirement, as it would only allow the user to connect more USB devices to the laptop. A USB hub is a device that splits one USB port into multiple ports, but it does not support other types of connections, such as HDMI or audio. A USB hub would also require an external power source or drain the laptop’s battery faster. This option would not help the user connect the HDMI external monitor or the 3.5mm headset.
Question #119
A user reports a tablet restarts on its own every five to ten minutes. In addition, the tablet has intermittent issues with charging. The technician gives the user a new power adapter and charging cable, and the technician also tries resetting the OS. but the issue persists.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
- A . Water damage
- B . Incorrect OS version
- C . Faulty battery
- D . Damaged charging port
Correct Answer: C
C
Explanation:
A faulty battery could cause a tablet to restart on its own and have intermittent issues with charging. Water damage could also cause these symptoms, but it is not the most likely cause unless there is evidence of liquid exposure. Incorrect OS version could cause compatibility or performance issues, but not charging problems. Damaged charging port could prevent the tablet from charging, but not cause it to restart randomly.
C
Explanation:
A faulty battery could cause a tablet to restart on its own and have intermittent issues with charging. Water damage could also cause these symptoms, but it is not the most likely cause unless there is evidence of liquid exposure. Incorrect OS version could cause compatibility or performance issues, but not charging problems. Damaged charging port could prevent the tablet from charging, but not cause it to restart randomly.
Question #120
A user’s Windows PC is unable to connect to the network at a new branch office that the user is visiting. A technician discovers the PC is unable to ping the local gateway.
Which of the following commands should the technician use next?
- A . ipconfig
- B . cd config
- C . ifconfig
- D . show config
Correct Answer: A
A
Explanation:
ipconfig is a command-line tool that displays the current configuration of the network interfaces on a Windows PC. It can also be used to release and renew the IP address, flush the DNS cache, and display the routing table. If the PC is unable to ping the local gateway, the technician should use ipconfig to check the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers of the PC. The technician can also use ipconfig /renew to request a new IP address from the DHCP server, or ipconfig /flushdns to clear the DNS cache.
Reference
• [CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1001) Certification Study Guide], page 78
• How to use the ipconfig command on Windows 10
• How to Ping the Windows Network Router
A
Explanation:
ipconfig is a command-line tool that displays the current configuration of the network interfaces on a Windows PC. It can also be used to release and renew the IP address, flush the DNS cache, and display the routing table. If the PC is unable to ping the local gateway, the technician should use ipconfig to check the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers of the PC. The technician can also use ipconfig /renew to request a new IP address from the DHCP server, or ipconfig /flushdns to clear the DNS cache.
Reference
• [CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1001) Certification Study Guide], page 78
• How to use the ipconfig command on Windows 10
• How to Ping the Windows Network Router