Practice Free NetSec-Generalist Exam Online Questions
What is the main security benefit of adding a CN-Series firewall to an existing VM-Series firewall deployment when the customer is using containers?
- A . It provides perimeter threat detection and inspection outside the container itself.
- B . It prevents lateral threat movement within the container itself.
- C . It monitors and logs traffic outside the container itself.
- D . It enables core zone segmentation within the container itself.
B
Explanation:
A CN-Series firewall is a container-native firewall designed to provide security inside Kubernetes environments. It is used in addition to a VM-Series firewall, which primarily protects cloud and virtualized workloads.
The main security benefit of CN-Series is that it prevents lateral movement of threats within the container itself by enforcing:
Microsegmentation within Kubernetes clusters
Deep packet inspection for inter-container communication Zero Trust enforcement inside containerized applications
Why Preventing Lateral Threat Movement is the Correct Answer?
Containers are highly dynamic, and traditional firewalls cannot inspect intra-container traffic.
The CN-Series firewall enforces microsegmentation, blocking unauthorized communication between compromised containers.
Prevents malware or attackers from spreading within the Kubernetes environment.
Other Answer Choices Analysis
(A) Provides perimeter threat detection outside the container C This describes VM-Series firewalls, not CN-Series.
(C) Monitors and logs traffic outside the container C
CN-Series monitors intra-container traffic, not just traffic outside the container.
(D) Enables core zone segmentation within the container C
The correct term is microsegmentation, but the key benefit is preventing lateral movement.
Reference and Justification:
Zero Trust Architectures C Enforces least-privilege access within containers.
Threat Prevention & WildFire C Prevents malware from spreading between containers.
Thus, CN-Series Firewall (B) is the correct answer, as it prevents lateral threat movement within the container itself.
Which functionality does an NGFW use to determine whether new session setups are legitimate or illegitimate?
- A . SYN flood protection
- B . SYN bit
- C . Random Early Detection (RED)
- D . SYN cookies
A
Explanation:
An NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) determines whether new session setups are legitimate or illegitimate by using SYN flood protection, which is a key component of DoS/DDoS mitigation.
How SYN Flood Protection Works in an NGFW:
Detects High SYN Traffic Rates C SYN flood attacks occur when a large number of half-open TCP connections are created, overwhelming a server or firewall.
Implements SYN Cookies or Rate-Limiting C To mitigate attacks, the NGFW applies SYN cookies or connection rate limits to filter out illegitimate connection attempts.
Maintains a Secure State Table C The firewall tracks legitimate and suspicious SYN requests, ensuring only genuine connections are allowed through.
Protects Against TCP-Based Attacks C Prevents resource exhaustion caused by attackers flooding SYN packets without completing the TCP handshake.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?
B. SYN bit ❌
Incorrect, because the SYN bit is just a flag in the TCP header used to initiate a connection―it does not help distinguish between legitimate and illegitimate sessions.
C. Random Early Detection (RED) ❌
Incorrect, because RED is used in congestion avoidance for queuing mechanisms, not for TCP session validation.
D. SYN cookies ❌
Incorrect, because SYN cookies are a method used within SYN flood protection, but they are just one part of the larger SYN flood protection mechanism implemented in NGFWs.
Reference to Firewall Deployment and Security Features:
Firewall Deployment C SYN flood protection is a core feature of Palo Alto NGFWs.
Security Policies C Helps enforce rate-limiting and SYN cookie mechanisms to prevent DoS attacks.
VPN Configurations C Prevents SYN flood attacks from affecting IPsec VPN gateways.
Threat Prevention C Works alongside intrusion prevention systems (IPS) to block TCP-based attacks.
WildFire Integration C Not directly related but ensures malware-infected bots don’t launch SYN flood attacks.
Zero Trust Architectures C Protects trusted network zones by preventing unauthorized connection attempts.
Thus, the correct answer is:
✅ A. SYN flood protection
Which two cloud deployment high availability (HA) options would cause a firewall administrator to use Cloud NGFW? (Choose two.)
- A . Automated autoscaling
- B . Terraform to automate HA
- C . Dedicated vNIC for HA
- D . Deployed with load balancers
AD
Explanation:
Cloud high availability (HA) strategies differ from traditional HA deployments in physical firewalls. Cloud NGFW provides cloud-native high availability options that align with cloud architectures, particularly in AWS and Azure environments.
After a Best Practice Assessment (BPA) is complete, it is determined that dynamic updates for Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) used by company branch offices do not match recommendations.
The snippet used for dynamic updates is currently set to download and install updates weekly.
Knowing these devices have the Precision Al bundle, which two statements describe how the settings need to be adjusted in the snippet? (Choose two.)
- A . Applications and threats should be updated daily.
- B . Antivirus should be updated daily.
- C . WildFire should be updated every five minutes.
- D . URL filtering should be updated hourly.
A C
Explanation:
A Best Practice Assessment (BPA) evaluates firewall configurations against Palo Alto Networks’ recommended best practices. In this case, the Cloud-Delivered Security Services (CDSS) update settings do not align with best practices, as they are currently set to weekly updates, which delays threat prevention.
Best Practices for Dynamic Updates in the Precision AI Bundle Applications and Threats C Update Daily
Regular updates ensure the firewall detects and blocks the latest exploits, vulnerabilities, and malware.
Weekly updates are too slow and leave the network vulnerable to newly discovered attacks. WildFire C Update Every Five Minutes
WildFire is Palo Alto Networks’ cloud-based malware analysis engine, which identifies and mitigates new threats in near real-time.
Updating every five minutes ensures that newly discovered malware signatures are applied quickly.
A weekly update would significantly delay threat response.
Other Answer Choices Analysis
(B) Antivirus should be updated daily.
While frequent updates are recommended, Antivirus in Palo Alto firewalls is updated hourly by default (not daily).
(D) URL Filtering should be updated hourly.
URL Filtering databases are updated dynamically in the cloud, and do not require fixed hourly updates.
URL filtering effectiveness depends on cloud integration rather than frequent updates.
Reference and Justification:
Firewall Deployment C Ensuring dynamic updates align with best practices enhances security.
Security Policies C Applications, Threats, and WildFire updates are critical for enforcing protection policies.
Threat Prevention & WildFire C Frequent updates reduce the window of exposure to new threats.
Panorama C Updates can be managed centrally for branch offices.
Zero Trust Architectures C Requires real-time threat intelligence updates.
Thus, Applications & Threats (A) should be updated daily, and WildFire (C) should be updated every five minutes to maintain optimal security posture in accordance with BPA recommendations.
Which type of traffic can a firewall use for proper classification and visibility of internet of things (loT) devices?
- A . DHCP
- B . RTP
- C . RADIUS
- D . SSH
A
Explanation:
To properly classify and gain visibility into Internet of Things (IoT) devices, a firewall can analyze DHCP traffic, as IoT devices frequently use DHCP for network connectivity.
Why DHCP is the Correct Answer?
IoT Devices Often Use DHCP for IP Assignment C
Most IoT devices (smart cameras, sensors, medical devices, industrial controllers) dynamically obtain
IP addresses via DHCP.
Firewalls can inspect DHCP requests to identify device types based on DHCP Option 55 (Parameter Request List) and Option 60 (Vendor Class Identifier).
Enhances IoT Security with Granular Policies C
Palo Alto Networks IoT Security uses DHCP data to assign risk scores, enforce access control policies, and detect anomalies.
Does Not Require Deep Packet Inspection C
Unlike RTP, RADIUS, or SSH, which focus on specific protocols for media streaming, authentication, and encryption, DHCP data is lightweight and easily analyzed.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?
B. RTP (Real-Time Transport Protocol) ❌
Incorrect, because RTP is used for media streaming (VoIP, video conferencing), not device classification.
C. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) ❌
Incorrect, because RADIUS is an authentication protocol, not a traffic type used for IoT device classification.
D. SSH (Secure Shell) ❌
Incorrect, because SSH is an encrypted protocol used for remote device access, not identifying IoT devices.
Reference to Firewall Deployment and Security Features:
Firewall Deployment C Firewalls use DHCP fingerprinting for IoT visibility.
Security Policies C DHCP data enables dynamic security policy enforcement for IoT devices.
VPN Configurations C Ensures IoT devices using VPN connections are correctly classified.
Threat Prevention C Detects malicious IoT devices based on DHCP metadata.
WildFire Integration C Prevents IoT devices from being used in botnet attacks.
Zero Trust Architectures C Ensures least-privilege access policies for IoT devices.
Why would an enterprise architect use a Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) connector instead of a service connection for private application access?
- A . It controls traffic from the mobile endpoint to any of the organization’s internal resources.
- B . It functions as the attachment point for IPSec-based connections to remote site or branch networks.
- C . It supports traffic sourced from on-premises or public cloud-based resources to mobile users and remote networks.
- D . It automatically discovers private applications and suggests Security policy rules for them.
D
Explanation:
A Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) connector is used instead of a service connection for private application access because it provides automatic application discovery and policy enforcement.
Why is ZTNA Connector the Right Choice?
Discovers Private Applications
The ZTNA connector automatically identifies previously unknown or unmanaged private applications running in a data center or cloud environment.
Suggests Security Policy Rules
After discovering applications, it suggests appropriate security policies to control user access, ensuring Zero Trust principles are followed.
Granular Access Control
It enforces least-privilege access and applies identity-based security policies for private applications.
Other Answer Choices Analysis
(A) Controls traffic from the mobile endpoint to any of the organization’s internal resources
This describes ZTNA enforcement, but does not explain why a ZTNA connector is preferred over a service connection.
(B) Functions as the attachment point for IPsec-based connections to remote site or branch networks This describes a service connection, which is different from a ZTNA connector.
(C) Supports traffic sourced from on-premises or public cloud-based resources to mobile users and remote networks
This aligns more with Prisma Access service connections, not ZTNA connectors.
Reference and Justification:
Zero Trust Architectures C ZTNA ensures that private applications are discovered, classified, and protected.
Firewall Deployment & Security Policies C ZTNA connectors automate private application security.
Threat Prevention & WildFire C Provides additional security layers for private apps.
Thus, ZTNA Connector (D) is the correct answer, as it automatically discovers private applications and suggests security policy rules for them.
At a minimum, which action must be taken to ensure traffic coming from outside an organization to the DMZ can access the DMZ zone for a company using private IP address space?
- A . Configure static NAT for all incoming traffic.
- B . Create NAT policies on post-NAT addresses for all traffic destined for DMZ.
- C . Configure NAT policies on the pre-NAT addresses and post-NAT zone.
- D . Create policies only for pre-NAT addresses and any destination zone.
C
Explanation:
When setting up NAT for inbound traffic to a DMZ using private IP addressing, the correct approach is to configure NAT policies on:
Pre-NAT addresses C Refers to the public IP address that external users access.
Post-NAT zone C Refers to the internal (DMZ) zone where the private IP resides.
This ensures that inbound requests are translated correctly from public to private addresses and that firewall policies can enforce access control.
Why is Pre-NAT Address & Post-NAT Zone the Correct Choice?
NAT Rules Must Use Pre-NAT Addresses
The firewall processes NAT rules first, meaning firewall security policies reference pre-NAT IPs.
This ensures incoming traffic is properly matched before translation.
Post-NAT Zone Ensures Correct Forwarding
The destination zone must match the actual (post-NAT) zone to allow correct security policy enforcement.
Other Answer Choices Analysis
(A) Configure Static NAT for All Incoming Traffic C
Static NAT alone does not ensure correct security policy enforcement.
Pre-NAT and post-NAT rules are still required for proper traffic flow.
(B) Create NAT Policies on Post-NAT Addresses for All Traffic Destined for DMZ C Incorrect, as NAT policies are always based on pre-NAT addresses.
(D) Create Policies Only for Pre-NAT Addresses and Any Destination Zone C Firewall rules must match the correct post-NAT zone to ensure proper traffic handling. Reference and Justification:
Firewall Deployment C Ensures correct NAT configuration for public-to-private access.
Security Policies C Policies must match pre-NAT IPs and post-NAT zones for proper enforcement.
Thus, Configuring NAT policies on Pre-NAT addresses and Post-NAT zone (C) is the correct answer, as it ensures proper NAT and security policy enforcement.
Which action in the Customer Support Portal is required to generate authorization codes for Software NGFWs?
- A . Download authorization codes from the public cloud marketplace.
- B . Create a deployment profile.
- C . Use the Enterprise Support Agreement (ESA) authorization code.
- D . Register the device with the cloud service provider.
B
Explanation:
To generate authorization codes for Software Next-Generation Firewalls (NGFWs), it is necessary to create a deployment profile within the Palo Alto Networks Customer Support Portal (CSP). This process involves defining the specifics of your deployment, such as the desired firewall model, associated subscriptions, and other relevant configurations.
Once the deployment profile is established, the CSP generates an authorization code corresponding to the specified configuration. This code is then used during the firewall’s activation process to license the software and enable the associated subscriptions.
It’s important to note that authorization codes are not typically obtained directly from public cloud marketplaces or through Enterprise Support Agreement (ESA) codes. Additionally, while registering the device with the cloud service provider is a necessary step, it does not, by itself, generate the required authorization codes.
Reference: docs.paloaltonetworks.com
Infrastructure performance issues and resource constraints have prompted a firewall administrator to monitor hardware NGFW resource statistics.
Which AlOps feature allows the administrator to review these statistics for each firewall in the environment?
- A . Capacity Analyzer
- B . Host information profile (HIP)
- C . Policy Analyzer
- D . Security Posture Insights
A
Explanation:
The Capacity Analyzer feature in Palo Alto Networks’ AIOps for NGFW (Next-Generation Firewall) provides administrators with insights into hardware resource statistics for each firewall in the environment. It helps identify infrastructure performance issues and resource constraints, such as CPU usage, session capacity, and throughput levels.
Capacity Monitoring: It enables real-time and historical monitoring of resource usage to ensure optimal performance.
Proactive Issue Detection: Administrators can proactively address resource constraints before they impact the network.
Unified Visibility: With AIOps, the Capacity Analyzer aggregates data from all managed firewalls, providing centralized visibility into resource utilization across the environment.
Reference: Palo Alto Networks AIOps Documentation
Capacity Analyzer Overview
Which tool will help refine a security rule by specifying the applications it has viewed in past weeks?
- A . Security Lifecycle Review (SLR)
- B . Custom Reporting
- C . Autonomous Digital Experience Management (ADEM)
- D . Policy Optimizer
D
Explanation:
The Policy Optimizer tool helps refine security rules by analyzing historical traffic data and identifying the applications observed over past weeks.
It is designed to:
Improve Security Policies C Identifies overly permissive rules and suggests specific application-based security policies.
Enhance Rule Accuracy C Helps replace port-based rules with App-ID-based security rules, reducing the risk of unintended access.
Use Historical Traffic Data C Analyzes past network activity to determine which applications should be explicitly allowed or denied.
Simplify Rule Management C Reduces redundant or outdated policies, leading to more effective firewall rule enforcement.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect?